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Code d'Examen: 250-316

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Backup Exec 2012)

Questions et réponses: 112 Q&As

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NO.1 An administrator plans to use Symantec Backup Exec 2012 data deduplication capabilities to protect a
Hyper-V environment. The administrator needs to leverage client-side deduplication and image-based
backups of the Hyper-V virtual machines. How does Symantec Backup Exec 2012 accomplish this task?
A. The Agent for Windows installed on the Hyper-V host performs client-side deduplication.
B. Backup data is deduplicated "in flight" during transport to the Symantec Backup Exec server.
C. Hyper-V virtual machines use the .VHD format for virtual disks, which is deduplicated by definition.
D. The PureDisk client installed to the Hyper-V secondary server performs client-side deduplication.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A job runs with a custom error-handling rule in addition to the default error-handing rule. What will
happen?
A. The custom error-handling rule will apply.
B. The default error-handling rule will apply.
C. The job will fail.
D. The administrator will be prompted to select the rule.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which two behaviors of the Symantec Backup Exec 2012 Agent for Applications and Databases apply
to Microsoft Active Directory? (Select two.)
A. It is installed as a separate add-on component.
B. Windows Active Directory database can be backed up while online.
C. It is a system service that runs on remote Windows servers where active directory is installed.
D. Granular restore of individual Active Directory objects and attributes is unsupported.
E. It requires Agent for Windows to be running on the domain controller.
Answer: B,E

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NO.4 In Symantec Backup Exec 2012, scheduled convert to virtual jobs can be configured to support which
two sources? (Select two.)
A. all differential backups
B. all full backups
C. most recent snap
D. last incremental with changed block tracking enabled
E. most recent full backup
Answer: B,E

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NO.5 A backup job failed with an access denied error message. Which option in the backup job property can
be used to set the correct permissions?
A. verify credentials
B. user account credentials
C. validate credentials
D. test/edit credentials
Answer: D

certification Symantec   250-316   250-316   250-316 examen

NO.6 An administrator needs to use the Agent for VMware and Hyper-V to protect a VMware virtual machine
hosting Microsoft Exchange. The administrator needs to restore granular application objects, such as
emails, from the backup sets that are captured from the virtual machine hosting Exchange. Which action
should the administrator take before configuring a backup definition for the virtual machine hosting
Exchange?
A. run the Exchange optimizer utility
B. manually install VMware tools on the virtual machine
C. install the Agent for Windows on the virtual machine hosting Exchange
D. manually truncate Exchange transaction logs
Answer: C

Symantec   250-316 examen   250-316   250-316

NO.7 Which two options are supported by the Checkpoint Restart feature of Symantec Backup Exec 2012?
(Select two.)
A. FAT32 volumes
B. NTFS volumes
C. Linux computers
D. Cluster Shared Volumes (CSV)
E. VSS
Answer: B,E

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NO.8 A user requests the restore of files from the backup of a different server. The administrator performs a
redirected restore to the user's folder. Which "Restore site list and item level permissions" option must the
administrator select so the user can use the restored files?
A. restore only the NTFS permissions
B. restore files with the NTFS permissions of the destination folder
C. restore files without their NTFS permissions
D. restore files with their NTFS partitions
Answer: C

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NO.9 Where are the Symantec Backup Exec Job Log files stored by default?
A. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec
B. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec\Data
C. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec\Logs
D. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec\Log
Answer: B

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NO.10 An administrator needs to restore multiple emails from a GRT enabled backup of Exchange to a file.
Which file format will be created?
A. .MSG
B. .CAB
C. .PST
D. .OST
Answer: C

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NO.11 An administrator needs to restore a mailbox to an Exchange 2010 Database Availability Group. Which
server must have an installed Agent for Windows in order to restore from a GRT enabled backup of
Exchange?
A. the Edge Transport server
B. the Active Mailbox server
C. the Client Access server
D. the Passive Mailbox server
Answer: C

Symantec   certification 250-316   250-316   250-316   certification 250-316

NO.12 Which Symantec Backup Exec 2012 troubleshooting tool should an end user use before contacting
Symantec for additional support?
A. VxGather
B. Collect Debug Output
C. Symantec Backup Exec Support Tool
D. BEDiag
Answer: C

Symantec   250-316   250-316   250-316   certification 250-316

NO.13 Which Symantec Backup Exec 2012 default global scheduling option allows jobs to be cancelled
without manual intervention?
A. job auto cancel after 'x' hours after its scheduled start time
B. kill the job if it is still running 'x' hours after its scheduled start time
C. terminate the job if it is still running 'x' hours if no data has incremented
D. cancel the job if it is still running 'x' hours after its scheduled start time
Answer: D

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NO.14 For GRT operations, in which two instances must the default path for the TEMP directory specified in
"Symantec Backup Exec 2012 > Configuration and settings > Backup Exec Settings > Granular Recovery
Technology" be modified? (Select two.)
A. when the default path is the system volume
B. when the default path is a mapped drive letter
C. when the default path is NTFS
D. when the default path is FAT32
E. when the default path contains the Windows page file
Answer: A,D

Symantec   250-316 examen   250-316 examen   250-316   250-316

NO.15 Which tool should be used to collect debug logs for a failing backup of a remote server.?
A. BEUtility.exe
B. Ramcmd.exe
C. VxMon.exe
D. SGMon.exe
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: ST0-155

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Clearwell eDiscovery Platform 7.x Technical Assessment)

Questions et réponses: 173 Q&As

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Code d'Examen: 310-811

Nom d'Examen: SUN (Sun Certified MySQL 5.0 Database Administrator Part II)

Questions et réponses: 138 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements are required to create a key cache of 4 MB, assign the MyISAM table
world.City to it and preload the index?
A. mysql> SET GLOBAL city_cache.key_buffer_size = 4194304;mysql> CACHE INDEX world.City IN
city_cache;mysql> LOAD INDEX INTO CACHE world.City;
B. mysql> ALTER TABLE world.city KEY_CACHE = 4194304;
C. mysql> CREATE CACHE FOR world.City SIZE = 4194304;
D. It is not possible to create a key cache for a specific MyISAM table, only the global key cache can be
used.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Is the following statement true or false? The username you use to connect to MySQL must be the same
as the login used to access the operating system.
A. true
B. false
Answer: B

SUN examen   310-811   certification 310-811

NO.3 What are reasons to prefer using GRANT and REVOKE statements over editing the privilege tables
directly?
A. Using GRANT and REVOKE allows the server to figure out the right tables and do all the appropriate
work
B. All grant tables in memory are immediately updated on GRANT and REVOKE
C. Making changes directly to the grant tables, one must remember to execute flush privileges to make
the
changes take effect
D. GRANT and REVOKE statements allow you to do more fine-grained tuning of user privileges than
does
editing the grant tables directly.
E. None of the above
Answer: BCD

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NO.4 Which of the following best describes how the relay log works?
A. It records the times when the slave connects to the master.
B. When a slave receives a change from the master, it is recorded in the relay log first and processed
later.
C. When a slave receives a change from the master, it is processed first and then recorded in the relay
log.
Answer: B

SUN   310-811   310-811   310-811

NO.5 You have been granted SELECT, INSERT and DELETE privileges on the table city in the world
database. You log in, and exercise all your privileges without any problems.
While you are still connected and doing work, the administrator removes your DELETE privileges and
informs you by mail that you can no longer delete from table city.
Being skeptical, you decided to test your privileges and realize that you still have them all. What is are the
most likely causes of this?
A. The administrator forgot to revoke your UPDATE privilege
B. The administrator forgot to revoke your SELECT privilege
C. The administrator removed the DELETE privilege by performing an UPDATE directly on the
mysql.table_priv table
D. The administrator did not execute FLUSH PRIVILEGES
Answer: CD

SUN   310-811 examen   310-811 examen   310-811   310-811

NO.6 The stored function year_to_date is created by the 'root'@'localhost' account as follows:
CREATE FUNCTION year_to_date ()
RETURNS DECIMAL(10,2)
SQL SECURITY DEFINER
BEGIN
...
END;
Within the routine body, a number of calculations are made on data in the financials table and the
calculated value is returned. The only account which can access the financials table is 'root'@'localhost'.
If a client connects with the account 'joe'@'localhost' and calls the year_to_date function, what will
happen?
A. The function will always execute as if it was 'root'@'localhost' that invoked it since SQL SECURITY
DEFINER has been specified.
B. The function will not execute, as 'joe'@'localhost' does not have access to the financials table
C. The function will not execute as SQL SECURITY DEFINER has been specified. It would execute if
instead SQL SECURITY INVOKER had been specified
D. If the account 'joe'@'localhost' has the EXECUTE privilege on year_to_date, the function will complete
successfully
Answer: D

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NO.7 How can stored routines be used to check for constraints or legality of incoming data?
A. They can make use of the VALIDATE DEFINER setting.
B. They can not be used to check for constraints or legality of data.
C. They can check and only perform an action if the incoming values match a specified value.
Answer: C

certification SUN   310-811   310-811   certification 310-811

NO.8 Consider the following query:
GRANT ALL ON world.* TO 'web'@'hostname'
What privileges would this give this user?
A. All privileges including GRANT.
B. All privileges except GRANT.
C. SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE and DELETE.
D. ALL can not be used when granting privileges.
Answer: B

certification SUN   310-811   310-811 examen   310-811 examen

NO.9 Assuming that the account 'joe'@'%' does not already exist on the server, executing the statement
mysql> CREATE USER 'joe'@'%' IDENTIFIED BY 'sakila'
will have the following consequences:
A. The account 'joe'@'%' is created on the server. However, clients cannot connect using this account
until further privileges have been assigned to the account.
B. The account 'joe'@'%' is created on the server. Clients may connect to the server using this account,
but will not be able to access any databases, tables or stored routines
C. The account 'joe'@'%' is created on the server. Clients may connect to the server using this account
and execute stored routines, but will not be able to access any databases or tables
D. Nothing; there is no such command as CREATE USER
Answer: B

SUN   310-811   310-811 examen   310-811   310-811 examen   310-811

NO.10 How can the SHOW PROCESSLIST command be helpful when optimizing queries?
A. It shows if a query is using an index or not.
B. It shows how the server processes a query.
C. If checked periodically, it can reveal queries that cause other queries to hang.
D. It shows the percentage of processing power that each query is using on a server.
Answer: C

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NO.11 When working with stored routines, which of the following are true in regards to the effect on the
amount of data exchanged between client and server?
A. They may increase the amount of data exchanged.
B. They can help reduce the amount of data exchanged.
C. They have no effect on the amount of data exchanged.
Answer: B

certification SUN   310-811 examen   310-811   310-811

NO.12 Which of the following statements about the slow query log is true?
A. The slow query log will always contain just slow queries.
B. The slow query log may not always contain just slow queries.
C. The slow query log always logs more than just slow queries.
Answer: B

certification SUN   310-811   310-811 examen   310-811

NO.13 Which of the following best describes why InnoDB tables should always have primary keys and why
they should be short?
A. Because InnoDB uses primary keys to locate tables, and shorter keys make quicker lookups.
B. Because InnoDB uses primary keys to locate table rows, and shorter keys make quicker lookups.
C. Because InnoDB stores pointers in a log to all the primary keys and shorter keys make this log smaller.
Answer: B

SUN examen   310-811   certification 310-811   310-811

NO.14 Which of the following statements are true of how access control is based?
A. It is based off of an access control table in the mysql database.
B. It is based off of grant tables in the mysql database.
C. It is based off of an access control list stored in the data directory.
D. It is based off of an access control list stored inside the .frm files of each table.
Answer: B

SUN examen   310-811 examen   310-811   310-811

NO.15 Privileges for using stored routines can be specified at the following levels:
A. Server-wide
B. Per database
C. Per routine
D. The ability to use stored procedures is not governed by the privilege system.
Answer: ABC

SUN examen   310-811 examen   310-811   310-811   310-811 examen

NO.16 With replication, what on the master is used to send commands to the slave?
A. The relay log.
B. The binary log.
C. The SQL Thread.
Answer: B

certification SUN   310-811   certification 310-811   310-811 examen   310-811

NO.17 Consider the following GRANT statement:
GRANT USAGE ON *.* TO 'kofi'@'localhost' IDENTIFIED BY 'password'
What is the implications of executing that statement?
A. Kofi can access all database objects.
B. Kofi can access all his tables.
C. Kofi can display server system and status variables.
D. Kofi can grant privileges to others.
E. Kofi can access all database objects belonging to localhost.
Answer: C

SUN   310-811   310-811   310-811 examen

NO.18 Given the following MyISAM table structure:
mysql> desc city;
+-------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+
| Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra |
+-------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+
| ID | int(11) | | PRI | NULL | auto_increment |
| Name | char(35) | | | | |
| CountryCode | char(3) | | | | |
| District | char(20) | | | | |
| Population | int(11) | | MUL | 0 | |
+-------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+
and the following SQL statement:
SELECT Population
FROM city
WHERE Population = 10000
ORDER BY Population
LIMIT 5;
which of the following statements best describes how MySQL optimizer executes the query?
A. The optimizer uses the primary key column ID to read the index values, then uses the index on
Population to filter the results. The optimizer will always choose to use a unique index first, then use a
secondary index if available.
B. The optimizer uses the index on the Population column to search and filter the WHERE clause. A
temporary table is used to perform a filesort on the results, and then only 5 records are returned to the
client.
C. The optimizer uses the index on the Population column to search, filter and sort the Population column,
then returns 5 records to the client. The optimizer does not need to read the data rows, and can return
values from the index only, because the index contains just integer values that form a leftmost prefix for
the key.
D. The optimizer uses the index on the Population column to search, filter and sort the Population column,
and returns 5 records to the client. The optimizer does not need to read the data rows, and can return
values from the index only because only those columns where specified in the SELECT statement.
E. The optimizer will never read data from disk, since MySQL caches both data and index in the key
buffer.
Answer: D

SUN examen   310-811 examen   310-811 examen   310-811 examen

NO.19 For which of the following objects can privileges be specified?
A. Host
B. Global
C. Database
D. Table
E. Column
F. Row
Answer: BCDE

SUN   310-811 examen   310-811 examen   310-811

NO.20 Consider the following:
mysql> EXPLAIN SELECT Name FROM Country WHERE Code = 'CAN'\G
*************************** 1. row ***************************
id: 1
select_type: SIMPLE
table: Country
type: const
possible_keys: PRIMARY
key: PRIMARY
key_len: 3
ref: const
rows: 1
Extra:
Which of the following best describes the meaning of the value of the type column?
A. The table has exactly one row.
B. Several rows may be read from the table.
C. Only one row of all its rows need to be read.
Answer: C

SUN   310-811 examen   310-811   310-811

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Code d'Examen: 090-160

Nom d'Examen: SCO (SCO OPENSERVER(TM) RELEASE 5 RECERTIFICATION V30A1)

Questions et réponses: 99 Q&As

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NO.1 Which command can be used to reactivate a retired user account on a system with a security
profile set to traditional?
A. activate(ADM)
B. restore(ADM)
C. unretire(ADM)
D. A retired account cannot be reactivated.
Answer: C

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NO.2 SCO OpenServer Release 5 recognizes the main built-in parallel port for a server as lp0. The
interrupt vector it typically uses is:
A. IRQ 3
B. IRQ 5
C. IRQ 7
D. IRQ 11
Answer: C

SCO examen   090-160   090-160   090-160

NO.3 Which shutdown(ADM) option specifies the amount of time the system will pause before
shutting
down?
A. -f
B. -g
C. -i
D. -y
Answer: B

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NO.4 If a printer will be down for an extended period, which command should you use to prevent
jobs
from accumulating in that printers queue?
A. disable(C)
B. cancel(C)
C. lpshut(ADM)
D. reject(ADM)
Answer: D

SCO   certification 090-160   certification 090-160   certification 090-160

NO.5 Which mail channel protocol is used by SCO OpenServer to transmit outgoing e-mail over a
TCP/IP network?
A. POP3
B. IMAP4
C. SMTP
D. SNMP
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which level of backup is used when you perform an unscheduled backup?
A. Level 0
B. Level 1
C. Level 2
D. Level 3
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which scoadmin(ADM) manager do you use to configure a parallel port?
A. System Manager
B. Printer Manager
C. Software Manager
D. Hardware/Kernel Manager
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which command causes the inetd daemon to re-read the /etc/inetd.conf file?
A. inetd restart
B. kill -1 PID, where PID is the process ID of the inetd process
C. telinit inetd
D. Nothing, the changes will take effect immediately
Answer: B

SCO   certification 090-160   090-160 examen   090-160

NO.9 What must be properly configured for a Windows user to access SCO OpenServer files via
VisionFS?
A. Only SCO OpenServer permissions
B. Only VisionFS share access
C. Both SCO OpenServer permissions and VisionFS share access
D. Neither, any Windows user may access any shared SCO OpenServer file using VisionFS
Answer: C

certification SCO   090-160   certification 090-160

NO.10 Which filesystems support versioning?
A. EAFS and HTFS
B. DTFS and HTFS
C. EAFS, DTFS, and HTFS
D. All supported filesystems
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: RH-202

Nom d'Examen: RedHat (Redhat Certified Technician on Redhat Enterprise Linux 5 (Labs))

Questions et réponses: 171 Q&As

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NO.1 Either Reboot or use partprobe command.

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NO.2 Verify by mounting on current Sessions also:
mount /dev/hda? /data
5. You are new System Administrator and from now you are going to handle the system and your main
task is Network monitoring, Backup and Restore. But you don't know the root password. Change the root
password to redhat and login in default Runlevel.
Answer and Explanation:
When you Boot the System, it starts on default Runlevel specified in /etc/inittab: Id:?:initdefault:
When System Successfully boot, it will ask for username and password. But you don't know the root's
password. To change the root password you need to boot the system into single user mode. You can pass
the kernel arguments from the boot loader.
1. Restart the System.
2. You will get the boot loader GRUB screen.
3. Press a and type 1 or s for single mode ro root=LABEL=/ rhgb queit s
4. System will boot on Single User mode.
5. Use passwd command to change.
6. Press ctrl+d
6. There are more then 400 Computers in your Office. You are appointed as a System Administrator. But
you don't have Router. So, you are going to use your One Linux Server as a Router. How will you enable
IP packets forward?
Answer and Explanation:
1. /proc is the virtual filesystem, we use /proc to modify the kernel parameters at running time.
# echo "1" >/proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
2. /etc/sysctl.conf when System Reboot on next time, /etc/rc.d/rc.sysinit scripts reads the file
/etc/sysctl.conf. To enable the IP forwarding on next reboot also you need to set the parameter.
net.ipv4.ip_forward=1
Here 0 means disable, 1 means enable.
7. You Completely Install the Redhat Enterprise Linux ES 4 on your System. While start the system, it's
giving error to load X window System. How will you fix that problem and make boot successfully run X
Window System.
Answer and Explanation:
Think while Problems occurred on booting System on Runlevel 5 (X Window).
1. /tmp is full or not
2. Quota is already reached
3. Video card or resolution or monitor is misconfigured.
4. xfs service is running or not.
Do These:
1. df -h /tmp /tmp is full remove the unnecessary file
2. quota username if quota is already reached remove unnecessary file from home directory.
3. Boot the System in runlevel 3. you can pass the Kernel Argument from boot loader.
4. Use command: system-config-display It will display a dialog to configure the monitor, Video card,
resolution etc.
5. Set the Default Runlevel 5 in /etc/inittab id:5:initdefault:
6. Reboot the System you will get the GUI login Screen.
8. There are two different networks, 192.168.0.0/24 and 192.168.1.0/24. Your System is in 192.168.0.0/24
Network. One RHEL 4 Installed System is going to use as a Router. All required configuration is already
done on Linux Server. Where 192.168.0.254 and 192.168.1.254 IP Address are assigned on that Server.
How will make successfully ping to 192.168.1.0/24 Network's Host?
Answer:
1. vi /etc/sysconfig/network
GATEWAY=192.168.0.254
OR
vi /etc/sysconf/network-scripts/ifcfg-eth0
DEVICE=eth0
BOOTPROTO=static
ONBOOT=yes
IPADDR=192.168.0.?
NETMASK=255.255.255.0
GATEWAY=192.168.0.254
2. service network restart
Explanation: Gateway defines the way to exit the packets. According to question System working as a
router for two networks have IP Address 192.168.0.254 and 192.168.1.254. To get the hosts on
192.168.1.0/24 should go through 192.168.0.254.
9. Make a swap partition having 100MB. Make Automatically Usable at System Boot Time.
Answer and Explanation:
1. Use fdisk /dev/hda To create new partition.
2. Type n For New partition
3. It will ask for Logical or Primary Partitions. Press l for logical.
4. It will ask for the Starting Cylinder: Use the Default by pressing Enter Key.
5. Type the Size: +100M You can Specify either Last cylinder of Size here.
6. Press P to verify the partitions lists and remember the partitions name.
Default System ID is 83 that means Linux Native.
7. Type t to change the System ID of partition.
8. Type Partition Number
9. Type 82 that means Linux Swap.
10. Press w to write on partitions table.
11. Either Reboot or use partprobe command.

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NO.3 free -m Verify Either Swap is enabled or not.

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NO.4 quotaon -u /data

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NO.5 vi /etc/fstab /dev/hda? swap swap defaults 0 0

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NO.6 Quota is implemented on /data but not working properly. Find out the Problem and implement the quota
to user1 to have a soft limit 60 inodes (files) and hard limit of 70 inodes (files).
Answer and Explanation:
Quotas are used to limit a user's or a group of users' ability to consume disk space. This prevents a small
group of users from monopolizing disk capacity and potentially interfering with other users or the entire
system. Disk quotas are commonly used by ISPs, by Web hosting companies, on FTP sites, and on
corporate file servers to ensure continued availability of their systems.
Without quotas, one or more users can upload files on an FTP server to the point of filling a filesystem.
Once the affected partition is full, other users are effectively denied upload access to the disk. This is also
a reason to mount different filesystem directories on different partitions. For example, if you only had
partitions for your root (/) directory and swap space, someone uploading to your computer could fill up all
of the space in your root directory (/). Without at least a little free space in the root directory (/), your
system could become unstable or even crash.
You have two ways to set quotas for users. You can limit users by inodes or by kilobytesized disk blocks.
Every Linux file requires an inode. Therefore, you can limit users by the number of files or by absolute
space. You can set up different quotas for different filesystems. For example, you can set different quotas
for users on the /home and /tmp directories if they are mounted on their own partitions.
Limits on disk blocks restrict the amount of disk space available to a user on your system.
Older versions of Red Hat Linux included LinuxConf, which included a graphical tool to configure quotas.
As of this writing, Red Hat no longer has a graphical quota configuration tool. Today, you can configure
quotas on RHEL only through the command line interface.
1. vi /etc/fstab /dev/hda11 /data ext3 defaults,usrquota 1 2
2. Either Reboot the System or remount the partition.
Mount -o remount /dev/hda11 /data

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NO.7 Use mkfs -t ext3 /dev/hda?
Or
mke2fs -j /dev/hda? To create ext3 filesystem.

RedHat   RH-202 examen   certification RH-202   RH-202 examen

NO.8 vi /etc/fstab
Write:
/dev/hda? /data ext3 defaults 1 2

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NO.9 edquota -u user1 /data and Specified the Soft limit and hard limit on opened file.
To verify either quota is working or not:
Soft limit specify the limit to generate warnings to users and hard limit can't cross by the user. Use the
quota command or repquota command to monitor the quota information.
3. One Logical Volume named lv1 is created under vg0. The Initial Size of that Logical Volume is 100MB.
Now you required the size 500MB. Make successfully the size of that Logical Volume 500M without losing
any data. As well as size should be increased online.
Answer and Explanation:
The LVM system organizes hard disks into Logical Volume (LV) groups. Essentially, physical hard disk
partitions (or possibly RAID arrays) are set up in a bunch of equalsized chunks known as Physical Extents
(PE). As there are several other concepts associated with the LVM system, let's start with some basic
definitions:
Physical Volume (PV) is the standard partition that you add to the LVM mix. Normally, a physical volume
is a standard primary or logical partition. It can also be a RAID array.
Physical Extent (PE) is a chunk of disk space. Every PV is divided into a number of equal sized PEs.
Every PE in a LV group is the same size. Different LV groups can have different sized PEs.
Logical Extent (LE) is also a chunk of disk space. Every LE is mapped to a specific PE.
Logical Volume (LV) is composed of a group of LEs. You can mount a filesystem such as /home and /var
on an LV.
Volume Group (VG) is composed of a group of LVs. It is the organizational group for LVM. Most of the
commands that you'll use apply to a specific VG.
1. Verify the size of Logical Volume: lvdisplay /dev/vg0/lv1
2. Verify the Size on mounted directory: df -h or df -h mounted directory name
3. Use : lvextend -L+400M /dev/vg0/lv1
4. ext2online -d /dev/vg0/lv1 to bring extended size online.
5. Again Verify using lvdisplay and df -h command.
4. Create one partitions having size 100MB and mount it on /data.
Answer and Explanation:
1. Use fdisk /dev/hda To create new partition.
2. Type n For New partitions
3. It will ask for Logical or Primary Partitions. Press l for logical.
4. It will ask for the Starting Cylinder: Use the Default by pressing Enter Key.
5. Type the Size: +100M You can Specify either Last cylinder of Size here.
6. Press P to verify the partitions lists and remember the partitions name.

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NO.10 mkswap /dev/hda? To create Swap File system on partition.

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NO.11 touch /data/aquota.user

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NO.12 Make Successfully Resolve to server1.example.com where DNS Server is 192.168.0.254.
Answer: 1. vi /etc/resolv.conf

RedHat   RH-202 examen   certification RH-202   RH-202 examen

NO.13 Reboot the System and verify that swap is automatically enabled or not.
10. You are a System administrator. Using Log files very easy to monitor the system. Now there are 50
servers running as Mail, Web, Proxy, DNS services etc. You want to centralize the logs from all servers
into on LOG Server. How will you configure the LOG Server to accept logs from remote host ?
Answer and Explanation:
By Default system accept the logs only generated from local host. To accept the Log
from other host configure:
1. vi /etc/sysconfig/syslog SYSLOGD_OPTIONS="-m 0 -r"
Where
-m 0 disables 'MARK' messages.
-r enables logging from remote machines
-x disables DNS lookups on messages recieved with -r
2. service syslog restart

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NO.14 swapon /dev/hda? To enable the Swap space from partition.

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NO.15 Press w to write on partitions table.

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NO.16 quotacheck -ufm /data

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Code d'Examen: EX200

Nom d'Examen: RedHat (Red Hat Certified System Administrator - RHCSA)

Questions et réponses: 24 Q&As

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NO.1 Configure your Host Name, IP Address, Gateway and DNS.
Host name: station.domain40.example.com
/etc/sysconfig/network
hostname=abc.com
hostname abc.com
IP Address:172.24.40.40/24
Gateway172.24.40.1
DNS:172.24.40.1
Answer:
# cd /etc/syscofig/network-scripts/
# ls
# vim ifcfg-eth0 (Configure IP Address, Gateway and DNS) IPADDR=172.24.40.40
GATEWAY=172.24.40.1
DNS1=172.24.40.1
# vim /etc/sysconfig/network
(Configure Host Name)
HOSTNAME= station.domain40.example.com
OR
Graphical Interfaces:
System->Preference->Network Connections (Configure IP Address, Gateway and DNS) Vim
/etc/sysconfig/network
(Configure Host Name)

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NO.2 Add 3 users: harry, natasha, tom.
The requirements: The Additional group of the two users: harry, Natasha is the admin group. The user:
tom's login shell should be non-interactive.
Answer:
# useradd -G admin harry
# useradd -G admin natasha
# useradd -s /sbin/nologin tom
# id harry;id Natasha (Show additional group)
# cat /etc/passwd
(Show the login shell)
OR
# system-config-users

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-241

Nom d'Examen: Oracle (PeopleSoft Application Develper I: PeopleTools and PeopleCode)

Questions et réponses: 192 Q&As

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NO.1 View the Exhibit.
Based on this Build dialog box, select the two options that are true. (Choose two.)
A.When you click the Build button, the TS_EMP tables are created.
B.When you click the Build button, nothing happens to your database.
C.When you click the Build button, the TS_EMP tables may lose existing data.
D.When you click the Build button, the TS_INSTSCHD_VW view is created.
E.When you click the Build button, Application Designer generates a script file.
Answer: BE

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NO.2 View the Exhibit.
As the component processor loads a component, it executes PeopleCode programs according to buffer
allocation rules.
Each row in the table represents a PeopleCode program and its associated definition, scroll level, and
event. In what order will the programs execute?
A.A, B, C, D, E
B.C, A, D, E,B
C.C, E,A, D, B
D.E, C, A, B, D
E.E, D, C, B, A
Answer: D

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NO.3 Select the two field types that should be placed at the end of a PeopleSoft record definition. (Choose
two.)
A.Image
B.Prompt
C.Character
D.Attachment
E.Long character
F.ImageReference
Answer: AE

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NO.4 Select the most efficient way to determine the effect of modifying a definition.
A.Examine the SQL in the PeopleTools tables.
B.Use the XREF reports and visually examine the modifications.
C.Use the Find Definition Reference utility in Application Designer.
D.Use the Cross Reference utility in the PeopleTools, Utilities folder.
Answer: C

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NO.5 On the Process Scheduler Request page, you have to define the output type for your job or process.
Which three statements are true regarding the process output type? (Choose three.)
A.An output type that is selected for a job at the main job level carries through to the job items.
B.When an output type is selected for a process at the process definition level, it can be changed.
C.An output type that is selected for a job at the main job level does not carry through to the job items.
D.An output type that is selected for individual job items overwrites the output type that is entered for the
parent job.
E.An output type that is selected for individual processes or jobs that are attached to a job cannot override
the tput type that is entered for the parent job.
F.An output type that is selected for a process at the process definition level overwrites the output type in
the Process Scheduler Request page, and the Type drop-down list box in the Process Scheduler Request
page becomes unavailable.
Answer: ADF

Oracle examen   1Z0-241   1Z0-241 examen   1Z0-241   certification 1Z0-241

NO.6 Select the record definition that is configured correctly.
A.
B,
C.
D.
Answer: C

Oracle examen   1Z0-241   1Z0-241 examen   certification 1Z0-241   1Z0-241

NO.7 Select the three properties that you can maintain in a PeopleSoft record definition. (Choose three.)
A.Triggers
B.PeopleCode
C.Column order
D.Record field length
E.Query Security record
F.Prompt Security record
Answer: BCE

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NO.8 Select the three true statements about PeopleSoft field definitions. (Choose three.)
A.All PeopleSoft field definition names are in uppercase.
B.Date, Time, and DateTime fields all have a fixed length.
C.When you work with Number and Signed Number field types, the sum of integer and decimal positions
cannot
D.Altering an existing field definition's default label can have consequences at both the record definition
level and the page definition level.E.For a Long Character field, enter a field length of 256 to enable the
database platform to determine the maximum length of the field.
Answer: ABD

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NO.9 What type of PeopleCode looping construct will loop a specified number of times?
A.For
B.While
C.Do While
D.Do Until
E.Repeat-For
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which two PeopleCode events are part of the field action event set? (Choose two.)
A.FieldEdit
B.SystemEdit
C.FieldDefault
D.FieldFormula
E.FieldChange
F.RecordDefault
Answer: AE

Oracle examen   1Z0-241 examen   1Z0-241   1Z0-241   1Z0-241   1Z0-241

NO.11 For the Employee Expenses application, a PeopleCode program could be placed either on the
EMPLOYEE record or on the EMP_EXPENSE component. You decide to place it on the component.
Which is a valid reason for choosing to place the program on the component instead of the record?
A.The program updates multiple database tables.
B.The program validates data across multiple records.
C.Component PeopleCode executes before record PeopleCode, so it is more efficient.
D.The record definition is used on several components, but this program should run only on this
component.
E.The program initializes fields on the search page, and the search record is associated with the
component.
F.The component contains several record definitions and you do not want to duplicate the code in each
record.
G.Component PeopleCode is more reusable because component PeopleCode is available for execution
on other components.
Answer: D

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NO.12 When considering key structure, which three options are mutually exclusive? (Choose three.)
A.Key
B.Search Key
C.Descending Key
D.Alternate Search Key
E.Duplicate Order Key
Answer: ADE

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NO.13 Select three changes to a record definition that require you to rebuild the SQL table. (Choose three.)
A.You change the label of a key field.
B.You deselect the Search Key check box.
C.You change the length of a non-key field.
D.You deselect the Alternate Search Key check box.
E.You change an ascending key to a descending key.
Answer: CDE

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NO.14 Select the three true statements regarding search keys. (Choose three.) A.Search key fields are
indexed.
A.Search key fields are indexed.
B.Search key fields appear on the search page.
C.A field can be a search key even if it is not a key.
D.Selecting the Search Key option automatically selects the List Box Item option.
E.If an existing key field is changed to a search key, you must alter or rebuild the table.
F.The search key property is irrelevant if the record definition is not used as a search record.
Answer: ABD

Oracle   certification 1Z0-241   1Z0-241   1Z0-241   1Z0-241

NO.15 View the Exhibit.
You create this record definition and use Application Designer to complete a successful SQL build. Select
the four true statements regarding the SQL build. (Choose four.)
A.At least one index is created.
B.Related language tables are updated.
C.Data is written to the system catalog tables.
D.The DATE field is designated as NOT NULL.
E.The REVIEW_DAYS field is designated as NOT NULL. F.The prefix PS_ is inserted at the beginning of
the table name.
Answer: ACEF

Oracle examen   1Z0-241   1Z0-241

NO.16 View the Exhibit.
Select the page that most likely uses this subpage.
A.
A.
A
B.
C
D
Answer: D

Oracle examen   1Z0-241   1Z0-241   certification 1Z0-241

NO.17 Examine this PeopleCode snippet
Local Rowset &RS_Level0, &RS_Level1;
Local Row &Row_Level0, &Row_Level1;
Local Record &Rec_EMPLOYEE;
Local Field &Fld_ROLE;
&RS_LEVEL0 = GetLevel0();
&ROW_LEVEL0 = &RS_Level0.GetRow(1);
&RS_LEVEL1 = &ROW_LEVEL0.GetRowSet(SCROLL.DEPT);
&ROW_LEVEL1 = &RS_LEVEL1(1);
&REC_EMPLOYEE = &ROW_LEVEL1.EMPLOYEE;
&FLD_EMPID = &REC_TASKRSRC.EMPID;
&ID = &FLD_EMPID.Value;
Can the code given above be replaced with the following statement?
&ID = GetField().Value
A. No. The record must be specified.
B.No. The row and record must be specified.
C.Yes, if the code is placed on the current row
D.Yes, if the code is placed on the EMPID field.
E.Yes, if the code is placed on the EMPLOYEE record.
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-241 examen   1Z0-241   1Z0-241   1Z0-241 examen

NO.18 Select the three statements that are true about search records. (Choose three.)
A.Search records build the search page for the component.
B.Search records are referenced only at level zero in the component.
C.Search records rarely reference views; they are usually SQL tables.
D.Search records populate level zero on all pages that are in the component.
E.Search records provide a high-level key to the primary records that are referenced in the component.
Answer: ADE

Oracle   certification 1Z0-241   1Z0-241   1Z0-241

NO.19 Select the two properties of a summary page. (Choose two.)
A.It is display-only.
B.It contains only level zero.
C.It contains no related fields.
D.It references one record definition.
Answer: AC

certification Oracle   certification 1Z0-241   1Z0-241 examen   1Z0-241

NO.20 View the Exhibits.
Based on this page layout and page order, select the two true statements about this page definition.
(Choose two.)
A.The TS_EMP_REVIEW page is saved without error.
B.The TS_EMP_REVIEW page is saved with a related field error.
C.The TS_EMP_REVIEW page contains a parent/child design error.
D.The TS_EMP_REVIEW page is saved with a duplicate record field warning.
Answer: CD

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Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle EBS R12: E-Business Essentials)

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NO.1 Identify three correct statements regarding Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12. (Choose three.)
A.can run entirely on the Internet
B.a minimum of two modules needs to be implemented for an organization
C.is engineered to work as an integrated system on a single IT infrastructure
D.supports multidirectional flows of business information within an organization
Answer: ACD

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NO.2 Which two statements explain the role of the Desktop Tier in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12?
(Choose two.)
A.It displays the Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 Swan user interface.
B.It manages communication between the middle tier and the database tier.
C.It is responsible for forms displayed using Java (forms-based access) or HTML JavaScript.
D.It hosts various servers and service groups that process business logic for Oracle Applications.
E.It is responsible for storing and executing most of the business logic associated with Oracle E-Business
Suite Release 12.
Answer: AC

Oracle   certification 1Z0-204   1Z0-204   1Z0-204   1Z0-204 examen

NO.3 The technical architecture in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 supports the business needs of the
application. Select three business principles that drive the business architecture in Oracle E-Business
Suite Release 12. (Choose three.)
A.global
B.mobile interface
C.Business Intelligence
D.rapid implementation
E.end-to-end integration
F.self-service (HTML/JSPs)
Answer: ADE

Oracle   certification 1Z0-204   1Z0-204 examen

NO.4 The Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 architecture supports multiple languages. Which three
statements support the user's ability to successfully enter and view data in his or her specified language.
(Choose three.)
A.Character sets and fonts must be available on the middle tier.
B.Language support must be available on the desktop client tier.
C.Character sets and fonts must be available on the database tier.
D.The character set of the browser is set by Oracle Applications for each session.
E.The desktop browser must support character set and language-specific capabilities.
F.The responsibility profile option values provide the default National Language Support (NLS) settings for
all end users.
Answer: BDE

Oracle   1Z0-204   1Z0-204 examen   certification 1Z0-204

NO.5 Identify the Flexfield that can be used as an individual parameter and as a parameter range in the
Oracle Web Applications Desktop Integrator.
A.Key Flexfield
B.Range Flexfield
C.GL Ledger Flexfield
D.Descriptive Flexfield
E.Account Aliases Flexfield
Answer: A

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NO.6 You are involved in a project to upgrade to Oracle E-Business Suite, Release 12. You need more
information about the upgrade processes and paths.
Where would you find the upgrade guide for Oracle E-Business Suite?
A.AppsNet
B.Bug Database
C.Technical Forums
D.MetaLink Knowledge Base
E.Oracle Technology Network
F.Customer Knowledge Exchange
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-204   1Z0-204   1Z0-204 examen

NO.7 Identify the four end-user features of Oracle Application Object Library that provide uniformity of
function across the Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 Applications. (Choose four.)
A.custom menus
B.standard User Interface
C.Applications Online Help
D.shared Flexfield value sets
E.shared Graphical User Interface
F.Standard Report Submission (SRS)
Answer: BCDF

Oracle examen   1Z0-204   1Z0-204

NO.8 Identify two features of an "Independent" value set. (Choose two.)
A.There is a predefined list of values for a segment.
B.The values are stored in a product applications table.
C.The values are stored in an Oracle Application Object Library table.
D.You can enter a value other than those in the predefined list of values.
Answer: AC

Oracle   1Z0-204   1Z0-204 examen   1Z0-204

NO.9 Identify three features of Oracle Workflow. (Choose three)
A.enhances data security
B.helps you in maintaining business processes
C.helps you in keeping track of individual business transactions
D.starts workflow processes as a result of an inbound message
E.captures exceptions during workflow execution and takes relevant actions
F.integrates business functions only between business processes within a single Oracle E-Business Suite
instance
Answer: BDE

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NO.10 Identify three characteristics of Oracle HTML-based Applications (formerly known as Self-Service
Applications). (Choose three.)
A.use Oracle Forms for interface
B.use metadata dictionary for flexible layout
C.operate by direct connection to Web server
D.ability to re-establish dropped network connections
E.dynamically generate HTML pages by executing Java code
Answer: BCE

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NO.11 Select three features of Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 that leverage investment in technology.
(Choose three.)
A.Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 is engineered to work as an integrated system on a common IT
infrastructure.
B.Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 open standards-based architecture supports integration with
non-Oracle applications.
C.Technology support to use SQL*Plus, Oracle Data Browser, database triggers, and other tools to
modify Oracle Applications data is recommended.
D.Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 has the functionality to track who has made changes to your
information when the changes are made using database tools.
E.Support for internal Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 processes extends beyond enterprise
boundaries to include customers, suppliers, and other trading partners.
Answer: ABE

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NO.12 You can enter and view dates in any valid format in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12. You can also
enter and view numbers with either the period (full stop) character or comma as the decimal separator.
Regardless of the various formats that can be used to enter dates and numbers, the actual values are
stored in the database in the _____.
A.UTF8 format
B.ASCII format
C.US7ASCII character set
D.Standard number format
E.Uniform canonical format
Answer: E

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-204   certification 1Z0-204   1Z0-204

NO.13 Which three major application product families are included in the Oracle E-Business Suite Release
12 footprint? (Choose three.)
A.Oracle Workflow
B.Oracle Financials
C.Oracle Applications Framework
D.Oracle Applications Object Library
E.Oracle Project Management Product Suite
F.Oracle Human Resources Management System Suite
Answer: BEF

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-204   certification 1Z0-204   1Z0-204   certification 1Z0-204

NO.14 Identify two tasks of the Application tier in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 Applications
architecture. (Choose two.)
A.process business logic
B.store business logic in the database
C.retrieve business logic from the database
D.manage communication between desktop/client tier and database tier
Answer: AD

Oracle examen   1Z0-204   1Z0-204   1Z0-204 examen   1Z0-204   1Z0-204 examen

NO.15 Identify the four resources that Oracle Technology Network (OTN) provides. (Choose four.)
A.sample codes
B.Bug Database
C.technical articles
D.product downloads
E.product documentation
F.Applications Electronic Technical Reference Manuals (eTRM)
Answer: ACDE

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-204   1Z0-204   1Z0-204

NO.16 In Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12, Multiple Language Support (MLS) refers to the ability to
support multiple languages in the same Oracle Application instance. Which three statements concerning
MLS are true? (Choose three.)
A.Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 is available in multiple languages.
B.Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 translates all data entered by the user.
C.UTF8 is the recommended character set for installations that support multiple languages.
D.The character set you choose during installation determines which languages the instance can support.
E.The extended multilingual support present in the Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 data model can
increase database storage requirements.
Answer: CDE

Oracle examen   1Z0-204   1Z0-204 examen   1Z0-204

NO.17 Identify three modules that can be secured using the Operating Unit in Oracle E-Business Suite
Release 12. (Choose three.)
A.Oracle Assets
B.Oracle Payables
C.Oracle Receivables
D.Oracle General Ledger
E.Oracle Cash Management
Answer: BCE

Oracle examen   1Z0-204   certification 1Z0-204   certification 1Z0-204   1Z0-204

NO.18 The technical architecture in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 supports the business needs of the
application. Select three technical features included in the technical architecture in Oracle E-Business
Suite Release 12. (Choose three.)
A.global
B.mobile interface
C.rapid implementation
D.Business Intelligence
E.end-to-end integration
F.self-service (HTML/JSPs)
Answer: BDF

Oracle   1Z0-204   1Z0-204

NO.19 Paul wants to log in to Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12. Identify the first server to which his
request would go.
A.Web Server
B.Reports Server
C.Administration Server
D.Concurrent Processing Server
Answer: A

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NO.20 Calculate capacity load ratio by resource or production line.

NO.21 It is your first day at a client site to implement Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12. The client wants
you to log a Service Request using MetaLink, regarding a problem with the Invoice Workbench form in
Oracle Payables.
Identify the key information that is required to initiate a Service Request for this client.
A.Error Message Number
B.Brief Problem Statement
C.Customer Support Identifier
D.Oracle Payables Patch Set level
E.Version of the Invoice Workbench form
Answer: C

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NO.22 Which Oracle resource would you use to log, manage, and resolve product-related issues that you
encounter in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12?
A.AppsNet
B.MetaLink
C.AppsWorld
D.Bug Database
E.Oracle Technology Network (OTN)
Answer: B

Oracle   certification 1Z0-204   1Z0-204 examen

NO.23 Identify the two values that the Reporting Level parameter can have when using cross organization
reports with the Multi-Org Access Control feature. (Choose two.)
A.Ledger
B.Legal Entity
C.Operating Unit
D.Security Profile
E.Business Group
Answer: AC

Oracle examen   1Z0-204   1Z0-204

NO.24 Identify four products in the Oracle Applications Technology Layer. (Choose four.)
A.Oracle Tutor (TU)
B.Oracle Workflow (WF)
C.Oracle Applications DBA (AD)
D.Oracle Application Utilities (AU)
E.Oracle Applications Framework (FWK)
F.Oracle Daily Business Intelligence (DBI)
Answer: BCDE

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NO.25 ABC Corp. is installing Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 Applications on two nodes: A and B. On
Node A, it has installed the Form server, the Web server, and the Administration server. On Node B, it has
installed the Concurrent Processing server. By default, on which node would the Reports server be
installed?
A.Node A
B.Node B
C.neither of the nodes
D.both Node A and Node B
Answer: B

Oracle examen   1Z0-204   1Z0-204   1Z0-204

NO.26 You are the manufacturing lead for XYZ's implementation of Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12.
Your client has these requirements:
1.Create a production plan.
2>Analyze Sales Order information.

NO.27 You are a workflow user in the Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 instance.
Identify three tasks that you can perform using Status Monitor. (Choose three.)
A.Access notification history.
B.View participant responses.
C.Reassign notifications to another user.
D.View Error information for a failed workflow.
E.Cancel a workflow that you no longer want to run.
F.View the status diagram of a subprocess for a particular workflow process.
Answer: ABF

Oracle   1Z0-204   1Z0-204   1Z0-204

NO.28 Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 is designed to assist companies meet the business challenges of
globalization. Select four features of Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 that support efficient
management of a global enterprise in a single database. (Choose four.)
A.has common data model
B.supports multiple currencies
C.supports multiple data models
D.supports separate legacy systems
E.supports statutory and customary local requirements
F.extends internal process support beyond enterprise boundaries
Answer: ABEF

certification Oracle   certification 1Z0-204   certification 1Z0-204   1Z0-204 examen   1Z0-204 examen

NO.29 Analyze resources, materials, costs, and job schedule progress.
Identify the two flows you would implement to accomplish these requirements. (Choose two.)
A.Click to Order
B.Order to Cash
C.Procure to Pay
D.Forecast to Plan
E.Demand to Build
Answer: DE

Oracle examen   1Z0-204   1Z0-204   1Z0-204
3. You receive a request to create a new responsibility for US Payables Manager. The request states that
the new responsibility should have access to all menu items except Invoice Payments.
Identify two options that you would use to restrict the Invoice Payments option on the new US Payables
Manager responsibility. (Choose two.)
A.Remove the request group from the new US Payables Manager responsibility.
B.Create a Menu Exclusion for Invoice Payments on the US Payables Manager responsibility.
C.Create an Item Exclusion for Invoice Payments on the US Payables Manager responsibility.
D.Create a Security Attribute for Invoice Payments on the US Payables Manager responsibility.
E.Create a new menu excluding the Invoice Payments option and attach the new menu to the
responsibility.
Answer: BE

Oracle   1Z0-204   1Z0-204
4. What are the four required fields when defining a request set? (Choose four.)
A.Set
B.Owner
C.Set Code
D.Application
E.Description
F.Active Date
Answer: ACDF

Oracle examen   1Z0-204   1Z0-204   certification 1Z0-204   certification 1Z0-204

NO.30 Which tier in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 is responsible for storing application data?
A.Database Tier
B.Application Tier
C.Client (Desktop) Tier
D.Both Database Tier and Application Tier
Answer: A

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