Les meilleures Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-M01 4A0-M02 4A0-106 4A0-109 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 4A0-M01

Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent IP/MPLS Mobile Backhaul Transport)

Questions et réponses: 150 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 4A0-M02

Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Mobile Gateways for the LTE Evolved Packet Core )

Questions et réponses: 140 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 4A0-106

Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Virtual Private Routed Networks)

Questions et réponses: 61 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 4A0-109

Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Triple Play Services)

Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 The Alcatel 7302 ISAM is typically located in:
A. The customer home
B. The Serving Area Interface (SAI)
C. The provider Central Office (CO)
D. The video headend
Answer: C

certification Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-109 examen   4A0-109

NO.2 The Broadband Service Access Node (BSAN) may be:
A. The Alcatel 7330 FTTN ISAM
B. The Alcatel 7342 FTTU ISAM
C. Neither (a) or (b)
D. Both (a) and (b)
Answer: D

Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-109   4A0-109   4A0-109   4A0-109 examen   4A0-109 examen

NO.3 What are the minimum requirements for the Residential Gateway? Choose 2.
A. NAT support
B. Support Routed and bridged mode
C. Multicast (IGMP) support
D. Support IP packet filtering
E. Be able to terminate multiple access mediums
Answer: AC

Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-109 examen   4A0-109

NO.4 Which of the following is not a TPSDA network zone?
A. Home
B. Broadband Access
C. Broadband Aggregation
D. Broadband Metro
E. IP Services Edge
Answer: D

Alcatel-Lucent examen   certification 4A0-109   4A0-109   4A0-109 examen

NO.5 Why does the RG operate as a DHCP server?
A. As a local backup in case the provider DHCP server is unreachable
B. The subscriber may choose to manage their own IP addresses
C. The RG will never operate as a DHCP server
D. To assign IP addresses to the internal home devices when operating in routed mode
E. To assign IP addresses to the internal home devices when operating in bridged mode
Answer: D

certification Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-109   4A0-109 examen

NO.6 The internal BSAN architecture is composed of which of the following?
A. Line Termination (LT) portion and a Network Termination (NT)
B. Link Termination (LT) portion and a Node Termination (NT)
C. Link Termination (LT) portion and a Network Termination (NT)
D. Line Termination (LT) portion and a Node Termination (NT)
Answer: A

certification Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-109   4A0-109   4A0-109

NO.7 Which of the following may be connected to the RG in the subscriber home network? Choose the best
answer.
A. P.C.
B. TV with STB
C. Gaming console
D. LAN switch
E. Any Ethernet connected device
Answer: E

Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-109   certification 4A0-109   certification 4A0-109

NO.8 True or False. The RG is typically provider managed in Triple Play Services?
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-109   certification 4A0-109   4A0-109

NO.9 Choose the best answer to complete the following statement. Ethernet frames transmitted by the RG
contain:
A. 802.1Q VLAN ID of zero and 802.1P priority bits of all zero
B. 802.1Q VLAN ID randomly assigned by the RG and 802.1P priority bits of all zero
C. 802.1Q VLAN ID of zero and 802.1P priority bits randomly assigned by the RG
D. 802.1Q VLAN ID of one and 802.1P priority bits of all ones
E. 802.1Q VLAN ID of zero and 802.1P priority bits as assigned by the application
Answer: E

Alcatel-Lucent   certification 4A0-109   certification 4A0-109   4A0-109

NO.10 Which technical development allowed the deployment of IP protocol features at any point in the
network?
A. The invention of ATM
B. The IP enabling of the DSLAM
C. The usage of IP in the home network
D. The usage of an IP enabled BSA
Answer: B

Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-109   certification 4A0-109   4A0-109

L'avènement de la certification 3COM pratique d'examen 3M0-212 3M0-700 3M0-211 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 3M0-212

Nom d'Examen: 3COM (Certified Enterprise LAN Pre-Sales Expert version 3.2)

Questions et réponses: 134 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 3M0-700

Nom d'Examen: 3COM (Certified IP Telephony Specialist)

Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 3M0-211

Nom d'Examen: 3COM (Certified Enterprise LAN Specialist )

Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Click the Task button. Drag each Switch 5500 model to the recommended customer environment.
Correct:
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice1

3COM examen   3M0-212   3M0-212   3M0-212 examen   3M0-212

NO.2 Which Switch 5500 model(s) supports a 96 Gbps full-duplex XRN stacking connection?
A.Switch 5500-SI
B.Switch 5500-EI
C.Switch 5500G-EI
D.All of the above
Correct:C

3COM examen   3M0-212   3M0-212   3M0-212 examen   3M0-212

NO.3 Using 3Com's XRN technology, you can mix Switch 5500-SI and Switch 5500-EI model switches
to create a single switch stack.
A.True
B.False
Correct:B

3COM examen   3M0-212   3M0-212   3M0-212 examen   3M0-212

NO.4 Which three features are only supported on the Switch 5500G-EI switch models? (Choose three.)
A.Port-based VLANs
B.24 or 48 10/100/1000 Mbps ports
C.PoE upgradeable power supply unit
D.Hot-swappable Application Module Slot
E.Four GBIC Small Form-factor Plug-in (SFP) ports
Correct:B C D

3COM examen   3M0-212   3M0-212   3M0-212 examen   3M0-212

NO.5 Click the Task button. Drag each Switch 5500 model to the set of hardware features it supports.
Correct:
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice4
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice1

3COM examen   3M0-212   3M0-212   3M0-212 examen   3M0-212

C++ Institute CPP examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: CPP

Nom d'Examen: C++ Institute (C++ Certified Professional Programmer)

Questions et réponses: 230 Q&As

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CPP Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/CPP.html

NO.1 What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <list>
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
template<class T> void print(T start, T end) {
while (start != end) {
std::cout << *start << " "; start++;
}
}
class A {
int a;
public:
A(int a):a(a){}
operator int () const { return a;}int getA() const { return a;}
};
int main() {
int t1[] ={ 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10};
list<A> l1(t1, t1 + 10);
list<A> l2(l1);
l2.reverse(); l1.splice(l1.end(),l2);
l1.pop_back();l1.unique();
print(l1.begin(), l1.end()); cout<<endl;
return 0;
}
A. compilation error
B. runtime exception
C. program outputs: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2
D. program outputs: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2
E. program outputs: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
Answer: C

C++ Institute   CPP examen   CPP   certification CPP

NO.2 What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
using namespace std;
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator() (const T & val ) { out<<val<<" "; } };
struct Add {
int operator()(int & a, int & b) {
return a+b;
}
};
int main() {
int t[]={1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10};
vector<int> v1(t, t+10);
vector<int> v2(10);
transform(v1.begin(), v1.end(), v2.begin(), bind1st(1,Add()));
for_each(v2.rbegin(), v2.rend(), Out<int>(cout));cout<<endl;
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
C. 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
D. 11 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2
E. compilation error
Answer: E

C++ Institute   CPP   certification CPP   CPP   CPP examen

NO.3 What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <vector>
using namespace std;
class A {
int a;
public:
A(int a) : a(a) {}
int getA() const { return a; } void setA(int a) { this?>a = a; }
bool operator==(const A & b) const { return a == b.a; }
};
bool compare(const A & a, const A & b) { return a == b; }
int main () {
int t[] = {1,2,3,3,5,1,2,4,4,5};
vector<A> v (t,t+10);
vector<A>::iterator it = v.begin();
while ( (it = adjacent_find (it, v.end(), compare)) != v.end()) {
cout<<it?v.begin()<<" ";it++;
}
cout<< endl;
return 0;
A. program outputs: 2 3
B. program outputs: 2 7
C. program outputs: 3 8
D. compilation error
E. program will run forever
Answer: B

C++ Institute   certification CPP   CPP

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Meilleur IBQH IBQH001 test formation guide

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Code d'Examen: IBQH001

Nom d'Examen: IBQH (International Board for Quality in Healthcare)

Questions et réponses: 300 Q&As

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NO.1 An infection control team conducted a refreshment training day for surgeons and nurses of the
operating theatre. All of the following were recommended for sound infection control practice in their
everyday practice except
A. Open foot wear must never be worn in the operating room
B. Personnel attending the patient should not leave the theatre until gown, mask, gloves and goggles are
all removed
C. If the gloves are torn, they should be removed immediately and other sterile gloves are worn
D. Double sterile gloves are recommended for all surgeons involved in the surgery
Answer: C

IBQH   IBQH001   IBQH001

NO.2 Project management processes can be organized into
A. Initiating, planning, executing, controlling, and closing
B. Initiating, planning, contracting, executing, and administration
C. Designing, developing, testing, implementing and controlling
D. Initiating, designing, planning, executing, controlling, and Implementation
Answer: A

IBQH examen   IBQH001   IBQH001   IBQH001   IBQH001 examen

NO.3 Which organization is closest to a functional organization?
A. Strong matrix organization
B. Balanced matrix organization
C. Projectized organization
D. Weak matrix organization
Answer: D

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NO.4 A project is defined as
A. An endeavor, which is planned, executed, and controlled, performed by people, and constrained by
limited resources
B. A process of considerable scope that implements a plan
C. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service
D. An objective based effort of temporary nature
Answer: C

IBQH   IBQH001   IBQH001 examen   IBQH001

NO.5 Your company's largest client has just completed an audit of your quality system. Three major
deficiencies were identified, and you risk losing this client if the problems are not corrected. As quality
manager the best plan of action is
A. Identify and correct the root cause of the deficiencies and implement changes to improve the quality
system
B. Reprimand the employees that caused the deficiencies
C. Wait until another client finds the same deficiencies, and then form a task team to investigate the
problems
D. Promise the client that the problems will be corrected
Answer: C

IBQH examen   IBQH001   certification IBQH001

NO.6 Company procedures require the creation of a lessons learned document. Which of the following is the
best use of this document?
A. Planning record for the current project
B. Planning for future projects
C. Informing the team about what the project manager has done
D. Informing the team about the project management plan
Answer: B

IBQH   certification IBQH001   IBQH001 examen   certification IBQH001   IBQH001

NO.7 Project success depends on a number of interrelated factors including time, cost, and scope control.
The success of any project depends primarily on.?
A. Customer compromise in defining his needs
B. Exceeding customer requirements through gold plating.
C. Customer satisfaction
D. Customer-supplier relationship
Answer: C

IBQH   certification IBQH001   IBQH001

NO.8 During the team building phase in paediatric department, which of the following best describes the
actions of the team?
A. The group is uncertain of their duties
B. Members prioritize and perform tasks
C. The team leader usually delegates
D. The team functions run smoothly
Answer: A

certification IBQH   IBQH001   IBQH001   IBQH001 examen

NO.9 A case of hepatic cirrhosis was admitted to the ER. The patient had an attack of hematemesis few
minutes after admission and a large blood spill covered the floor .The nurse in charge brought the blood
spill kit and removed the blood. All the following are component of the blood spill kit except
A. Diluted chlorine solution
B. Goggle and plastic apron
C. Sterile gloves
D. Absorbent disposable tissue
Answer: C

certification IBQH   IBQH001   IBQH001   IBQH001   IBQH001

NO.10 To make a risk assessment of a procedure to choose your personal protective equipment, all of the
following must be kept in consideration except
A. The nature of the procedure
B. The risk of exposure to blood or body fluids
C. The risk of exposure to pathogenic micro-organisms
D. The race of the patient
Answer: D

IBQH   IBQH001 examen   IBQH001   IBQH001 examen

NO.11 All of the following occur during the planning process group except
A. Develop project charter
B. Create WBS
C. Estimate costs
D. Sequence activities
Answer: A

IBQH   IBQH001 examen   IBQH001   IBQH001   IBQH001 examen

NO.12 The most important procedure for the prevention of infection from germs and viruses is
A. Wearing gloves
B. Wearing surgical mask
C. Effective hand washing
D. Wearing protective eyewear
Answer: C

IBQH   certification IBQH001   IBQH001   IBQH001

NO.13 In the matrix management organization, which of the following is true?
A. The functional manager is responsible for improvement of employees ¯ sk ill s
B. The project manager is responsible for the employees' annual appraisal
C. The employee is responsible for his or her own skills improvement
D. The project manager is responsible for employees' skills improvement
Answer: A

certification IBQH   IBQH001   certification IBQH001

NO.14 In a debate about the use of clean disposable gloves versus not using any gloves while giving
subcutaneous injections, which of the following can mostly help the infection control physician make a
decision?
A. Risk assessment
B. National guidelines
C. Cost benefit and availability of the gloves in the healthcare facility
D. The decision provided by the infection control committee
Answer: A

IBQH   IBQH001 examen   IBQH001   IBQH001 examen   IBQH001   IBQH001 examen

NO.15 Standard precautions are measures of infection control that are used to reduce or eliminate exposure
to infectious agents .They include all of the following except
A. Work practices
B. Engineering controls
C. Personal protective equipment
D. Isolation of patients infected by contagious diseases
Answer: D

IBQH   IBQH001 examen   IBQH001

NO.16 At an infection control meeting, the discussion was focused on the new neurosurgery department
which will be opened soon. Regarding the infection control measures, which must be taken to minimize
the risk of transmission of Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD) and other prion diseases which of the
following statements is incorrect?
A. Flash sterilization is not effective in sterilizing equipment contaminated by prions
B. For semi critical items, immersion in 1 N sodium hydroxide for an hour is sufficient
C. Steam sterilization by gravity displacement autoclave 132 ¡ãC for 30 minutes is te preferred method
D. Prevacuum sterilizer at 134¡ãC for 18 minutes is effective
Answer: B

certification IBQH   certification IBQH001   certification IBQH001   IBQH001 examen

NO.17 To establish effective infection control in a health care facility which of the following is critical?
A. A physician and a nurse with responsibilities for infection control
B. A manual of critical infection control policies and an educational program for staff
C. Senior management commitment
D. All of the above
Answer: D

IBQH   IBQH001   IBQH001   IBQH001

NO.18 One of the most important duties that the project manager performs is
A. Cost management
B. Integration management
C. Quality management
D. Risk management
Answer: B

IBQH   certification IBQH001   IBQH001   IBQH001 examen   IBQH001 examen   IBQH001 examen

NO.19 The Infection control team in a hospital carried out a survey to estimate the incidence of health care
workers colonized by MRSA. During presenting the data in a meeting of the team, what is the most
important information they should look for while analyzing the results of the survey?
A. Gender of the HCW colonized by MRSA
B. The ward where MRSA colonized HCW work
C. Type of patients they serve
D. Site of MRSA colonization (nose, hands or other site)
Answer: B

IBQH examen   IBQH001 examen   certification IBQH001   IBQH001

NO.20 Effective communication is needed for
A. getting things done
B. Conferring with others to come to terms with them or to reach an agreement
C. The exchange of information
D. Taking decisions independently
Answer: C

IBQH examen   certification IBQH001   IBQH001   IBQH001

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PEGACSA-v6.2 dernières questions d'examen certification Pegasystems et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: PEGACSA-v6.2

Nom d'Examen: Pegasystems (Certified System Architect Exam (CSA) v6.2 Exam)

Questions et réponses: 213 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following tools can be used to accelerate the creation of rules used to support PRPC
connectors and services? (Choose Two)
A. Application Profile Wizard
B. Connector and Metadata Accelerator
C. Application Accelerator
D. Service Accelerator
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 What is the transition in an Activity used for? (Choose One)
A. To repeat a step several times, or until a condition is met
B. To change the harness display
C. To jump to a previous step in the Activity
D. To specify conditional processing which is evaluated after the method in the step is executed
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which statements describe the use of methods in an activity? (Choose Two)
A. Methods are atomic operations performed in activity steps
B. Methods are the same as Java methods
C. You can create activity methods for use in your activities
D. Methods can be applied to clipboard pages
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 Which statement is true about Work Users utilizing the Clipboard tool? (Choose One)
A. They may use it to change their portal layout
B. They may use it to change their password
C. They have no access to the Clipboard tool from the standard User portal
D. They may use it to update work object properties
Answer: C

Pegasystems   PEGACSA-v6.2   PEGACSA-v6.2   PEGACSA-v6.2

NO.5 Why should a business process be run at least once before measuring it with Performance Analyzer
(PAL)? (Choose One)
A. So PAL can establish a baseline
B. So Rules Assembly occurs and does not adversely affect the outcome
C. So PAL can start up properly
D. So the developer can capture Rules Assembly times
Answer: B

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NO.6 On which flow shape would you reference a service rule? (Choose One)
A. Decision
B. Integrator
C. Assignment
D. None of the above shapes
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is the primary purpose of the My Alerts tool? (Choose One)
A. To review and resolve interactions that exceed predefined threshold settings
B. To insert JavaScript alerts into HTML property rules
C. To establish PRPC threshold settings in the prconfig.xml file
D. To create personal alerts warning the System Architect of rule conflicts
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following is the best method for requesting data from an SQL database? (Choose One)
A. SQL connector
B. SQL listener
C. Service package
D. External database table class mapping
Answer: D

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NO.9 The Connector and Metadata Accelerator can simplify the creation of a connector by
________________________ to create the necessary rules. (Choose Two)
A. parsing a WSDL
B. parsing a provided Java source file
C. introspecting class metadata
D. creating an SQL query
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 Which of the following tools are most commonly used to evaluate performance during development of
a PRPC application? (Choose Three)
A. Preflight
B. PAL
C. Rules Inspector
D. My Alerts
E. Clipboard
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.11 Which connector type can be used to connect an Assignment to another shape? (Choose One)
A. Flow Action
B. Always
C. When
D. Status
Answer: A

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NO.12 Once you create a simu-lation for a connector, the simu-lation remains in effect
__________________________. (Choose One)
A. until disabled by using the Connector Simulation tool
B. until the simulation activity is deleted
C. permanently on the system; it can never be disabled
D. until the first call to the connector is completed
Answer: A

Pegasystems   PEGACSA-v6.2   PEGACSA-v6.2

NO.13 Which two statements are true about Activity step pages? (Choose Two)
A. The step page always corresponds to the class named in the Applies To key part of the Activity
B. Step pages are automatically removed when an Activity ends
C. The step page sets the default page context for the duration of the step's execution
D. Named step pages are not required for each step of an Activity
Answer: C,D

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NO.14 Which of the following can an activity do that a data transform cannot? (Choose One)
A. Set the value of a property on a clipboard page
B. Apply a data transform
C. Route a work item
D. Remove a clipboard page
Answer: C

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NO.15 A PRPC component that defines and implements an interface between an external application acting as
a client and a Process Commander system acting as a server is called a ______________________?
(Choose One)
A. Connector
B. Activity
C. Service
D. Assignment
Answer: C

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NO.16 An operator enters data into fields on a work item form. When does PRPC write the data to the
database? (Choose One)
A. When the user leaves each field
B. When the user submits the form, but before any validation occurs
C. When the user completes the last assignment in the process
D. When the user submits the form, and after any validation occurs
Answer: D

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NO.17 (True or False) When you optimize a property for reporting, any data saved in the BLOB up to that
point is not available for reports.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which two are characteristics of the primary page of an Activity? (Choose Two)
A. It is a clipboard page named Primary
B. It is the default location of properties referenced with a dot and no preceding page name
C. It is the same as the parameter page
D. It is a clipboard page of the Applies To class of the activity or one of its ancestors
Answer: B,D

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NO.19 Service Level rules include which of the following time intervals? (Choose Two)
A. Milestone
B. Requirement
C. Goal
D. Deadline
Answer: C,D

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NO.20 Which Activity method is used to view the contents of a step page in XML format? (Choose One)
A. Page-New
B. Show-Page
C. Property-Set
D. Step pages cannot be viewed as XML
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: PEGACLSA-6-2V2

Nom d'Examen: Pegasystems (Certified Lead System Architect (CLSA) 6.2V2)

Questions et réponses: 149 Q&As

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NO.1 When is it appropriate to use a spin-off? (Choose One)
A. When you wish to run calculations in a separate thread from the current process
B. When you wish to make a long-running SOAP service call asynchronously
C. When you wish to start another flow execution while continuing down the current process path
D. When you wish to call multiple connector rules concurrently
Answer: C

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NO.2 A rule is shown in the Final Conflicts report after doing an upgrade. Which of the following
describe what could be done to resolve the conflict? (Choose Two)
A. The rule could be marked Final
B. The rule could be deleted or Withdrawn so that the standard version of the rule is executed
C. Do a SaveAs on the conflicting rule to a new name and update references to this new rule
D. The rule could be copied into the production RuleSet
E. The corresponding RuleSet could be locked
F. The rule could be copied into a more specific class
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 An application administrator has been sent a number of complaints that after nightly server
restarts the PRPC application is slow in the early morning. Which of the following actions can be
used to mitigate this issue? (Choose One)
A. Enable Assembly Avoidance
B. Restart System Pulse
C. Configure and execute Static Assembler
D. Increase the size of the Rule Cache
Answer: C

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NO.4 You have been asked to build a human resources application that facilitates the work required
to
support new hires. For each new hire, multiple tasks must be done, such as "Acquire Computer"
and "Setup Payroll". You are having trouble deciding if each of these tasks should be represented
as separate assignments in the same case, or separate sub-cases. Which of the following
requirements will help you decide on the approach? (Choose Two)
A. It must be possible for "Acquire Computer" and "Setup Payroll" to be assigned to different
operators at the same time
B. It must be possible for the completion of one task to be independent from the other
C. It must be possible to edit fields for "Acquire Computer" and "Setup Payroll" at the same time
D. It must be possible to configure security differently; those who can open "Acquire Computer"
must not be able to open "Setup Payroll"
E. "Acquire Computer" and "Setup Payroll" require the capability to be reopened independently
Answer: C,E

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NO.5 A work type MyCo-FW-PurchaseApp-Work-Request has a PageList property .LineItems of class
MyCo-FW-PurchaseApp-Data-Item.
Another work type, MyCo-FW-PurchaseApp-Work-Order has a PageList property .ItemsForVendor
of class MyCo-FW-PurchaseApp-Data-Item.
An item has a calculation .TotalPrice = .Quantity * .UnitPrice.
The application is experiencing behavior where the TotalPrice is calculating correctly for Requests
but not for Orders. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this issue? (Choose
One)
A. The expression is likely defined as a context-sensitive expression ("only when the top level
page is of the applies to class")
B. The expression is likely defined as backward chaining
C. The expression is likely defined as a context-free expression ("regardless of any page it is
contained in")
D. The expression is likely defined as forward chaining
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: CMS7

Nom d'Examen: Peoplecert (ITIL V3 Foundation )

Questions et réponses: 370 Q&As

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NO.1 The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
C. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
D. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases
(CMDB)
B. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
C. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is a RACI model used for?
A. Defining roles and responsibilities
B. Monitoring services
C. Performance analysis
D. Recording Configuration Items
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
B. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service
Portfolio
D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following module would be MOST useful in helping to define an organizational structure?
A. RACI model
B. Service Model
C. Continual Service improvement (CSI) model.
D. The Deming Cycle
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill tominimize
the cost of training them
B. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or
supervisory roles
C. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements are low
and this helps to minimize salaries
D. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost effective to
keep them in the role where they have been trained
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?
A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
B. Menu-driven range of self help and service requests
C. Web front-end
D. A direct interface into the back end process handling software
Answer: A

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NO.8 Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the
business by?
A. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for
B. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased
C. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
D. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A. A change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines
B. A pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure
C. A change that is made as the result of an audit
D. A change that correctly follows the required change process
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?.
A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill tominimize
the cost of training them
B. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost effective to
keep them in the role where they have been trained
C. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or
supervisory roles
D. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements are low
and this helps to minimize salaries
Answer: C

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NO.11 The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?
A. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts?
A. Service Catalogue Manager
B. IT Designer/Architect
C. Process Manager
D. Supplier Manager
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
What services to offer and to whom?
What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
A. 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.14 A plan for managing the end of a supplier contract should be created when?
A. The contract is being negotiated
B. The contract is about to be ended
C. The Supplier Manager decides that there is a risk the contract might need to end soon
D. The contract has been agreed
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
B. The design of Market Spaces
C. The design of new or changed services
D. The design of the technology architecture and management systems
Answer: B

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NO.16 Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?
A. Services and Infrastructure
B. Applications and Infrastructure
C. Resources and Capabilities
D. Utility and Warranty
Answer: C

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NO.17 In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability
Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?
A. Service Transition
B. Service Design
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Operation
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?
A. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D
B. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B
C. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
D. 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
B. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases
(CMDB)
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Answer: A

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NO.20 How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?
A. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
B. There should be a single Plan,then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to
implement Continual Improvement
C. There should be a single Plan and Do,then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times to
implement Continual Improvement
D. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: MSC-111

Nom d'Examen: Motorola Solutions (Design Point (PTP and PMP) Solutions)

Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As

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NO.1 Among the options below, which are the first three items you should identify when troubleshooting
Spanning Tree Protocol errors (select THREE)?
A. Which bridge is the root bridge
B. How many IP gateways are on the L2 segment
C. The topology of the L2 segment inclusive of all bridges
D. The location of redundant links and which of their ports are blocked
E. Which links use fiberoptic to Ethernet converters
F. How many MAC addresses are on the L2 segment
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.2 What is the common term used to describe the process of limiting which VLAN IDs can traverse a
particular VLAN trunk port.?
A. VLAN Pruning
B. MVRP (Multiple VLAN Registration Protocol)
C. VTP (VLAN Trunk Protocol)
D. VLAN Sectioning
E. VLAN Negotiation
Answer: A

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NO.3 High Performance parabolic directional antennas are used in FTP network designs and provide:
A. side lobe suppression and interference mitigation.
B. broadest (or widest) beamwidth
C. superior wind loading for storm prone areas.
D. consistent spectrum analysis.
Answer: A

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NO.4 The main function of an antenna is to:
A. add power to a signal,
B. decode radio signals into data traffic.
C. direct radio energy in a desired direction.
D. protect transmitters from lightning.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Microwave Point to Point systems can be susceptible to Multi-path cancellation. Which technology can
help mitigate Multi-Path?
A. IEEE 802.3AF
B. OFDM (Orthogonal Frequency Division Duplex)
C. Transmit time diversity
D. RF port replication
Answer: B

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NO.6 When installing a PMP Access Point antenna on a tower, you need to install it at the proper height.
Motorola recommended practice is to mount the antenna at least how many feet/meters below the top of
the tower to protect it from lightning?
A. 0 feet / meters
B. 2 feet/0.6 meters
C. 10 feet/3 meters
D. 25 feet / 8 meters
Answer: B

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NO.7 Spatial Diversity is an antenna configuration that can be used to help point to point links: A. over long
distances of water where reflections are causing cancellation,
B. when interference from multiple directions is an issue.
C. when wind loading constraints will not allow a dual polarized antenna.
D. if site access is restricted because of security issues.
Answer: A

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NO.8 As a general design guideline, the signal strength required to meet a specific target modulation must
be exceeded in order to guarantee reliable communications. What is this excess signal strength called?
A. Receive Strength Ratio
B. Fade Margin
C. Signal Strength Ratio
D. Diversity Margin
Answer: B

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NO.9 The amount of MAC addresses to Ethernet Port mappings in a switch is finite. What happens when the
available mappings in these lookup tables are exhausted?
A. The switch drops all traffic destined for MAC addresses that are not in the lookup tables
B. The switch caches all traffic destined for the MAC addresses that are not in the lookup tables until
entries become available
C. The switch sends a congestion notification out the port to throttle the traffic until the lookup tables have
available entries
D. The switch floods traffic for all MAC addresses that do not have a lookup entry out of all its ports
Answer: D

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NO.10 Dynamic addressing simplifies network administration because the software keeps track of IP
addresses rather than requiring an administrator to manage the task. This means that a new device can
be added to a network without the hassle of manually assigning it a unique IP address.
Which of the following devices would typically use DHCP to get an address?
A. Switches/Hubs
B. Client/End Devices
C. Routers
D. Bridges
Answer: B

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NO.11 What protocol does a Dynamic Domain name server work in conjunction with to dynamically create 'A'
address records?
A. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
B. Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP)
C. LACP (Link Aggregation Control Protocol)
D. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
Answer: D

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NO.12 Thermal Ducting is a phenomenon often seen over great distances of water and flat hot terrain. It is the
layering of different density air in the atmosphere and can cause significant signal fading. One possible
solution to Thermal Ducting is to:
A. use two physically separated single polarized antennas (also known as Space Diversity)
B. deploy a single polarization microwave system.
C. increase frequency to increase free space attenuation.
D. deploy a Dual Polarity antenna at both ends of a link.
Answer: A

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NO.13 The reflection of a radio wave can affect the link quality:
A. negatively ONLY
B. positively ONLY
C. either negatively or positively
D. it does not affect link quality
Answer: C

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NO.14 Refraction of a radio wave could be caused by:
A. lack of transmit power.
B. sun spots.
C. change in air density.
D. antenna height.
Answer: C

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NO.15 During the early stages of the design process, the current and planned IP addressing scheme on the
project description template is used to check:
A. IP addressing conflicts with defaults.
B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) configuration
C. IP addressing requirements for core and edge routers.
D. network component capacity design
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: S90-02A

Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (SOA Technology Concepts)

Questions et réponses: 92 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements is true?
A. Service activities represent runtime activity that occurs within the underlying service logic.
B. Service activities represent design-time message exchanges that are established between
SOAP-based Web services and defined as part of the operation definition within the WSDL definition.
C. Service activities represent runtime activity that occurs between services.
D. Service activities represent runtime activity that occurs between complex and simple XML Schema
types.
Answer: C

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NO.2 When designing REST services within a given domain, you establish __________________ that are
represented by unique identifiers, usually in the format of __________________.
A. resources, HTTPs/HTTPSs
B. mashups, HTTPs/HTTPSs
C. resources, URLs/URIs
D. mashups, URLs/URIs
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following statements is true.?
A. WS-ReliableMessaging standardizes reliability levels associated with databases required to persist
state data.
B. WS-ReliableMessaging standardizes the issuance and delivery of positive and negative
acknowledgement messages.
C. WS-ReliableMessaging standardizes SOAP headers related to atomic transactions with rollback
features.
D. WS-ReliableMessaging standardizes the expression of service composition logic, but only for
SOAP-based Web services.
Answer: B

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NO.4 When two compatible SOAP-based Web services need to exchange an XML document that is
compliant with the XML schema shared by both services, then:
A. A data model transformation technology, such as XSLT, must be used to enable the data exchange.
B. A new XML schema must be created to overcome the disparity between how each service defines the
data model for the XML document.
C. A WS-Policy definition must be created to establish rules that address any differences in the XML
document exchange.
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following statements is false?
A. The WS-I is an industry standards organization that provides basic profiles to help foster
interoperability among solutions based on XML and Web services industry standards.
B. OASIS is an industry standards organization that has developed a number of important technology
specifications, including WS-BPEL and UDDI.
C. The W3C is a standards organization that has developed a number of important technology
specifications, including SOAP, WSDL, and WS-Addressing.
D. The OAS-C is an industry standards organization that has developed a number of important
technology specifications, including WS-Security and XML Schema.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following statements is true?
A. Individual service contracts do not need to be published for SOAP-based Web services. Instead, they
use a uniform contract.
B. Individual service contracts do not need to be published for REST services. Instead, they use a
common uniform contract.
C. Components provide published contracts, but when building services as components, components
must use a uniform contract instead.
D. None of these statements are true.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following statements is true?
A. An enterprise service bus commonly provides service broker-related features that allow two services
using different data models (that represent the same business document) to communicate with each
other.
B. An enterprise service bus commonly provides service broker-related features that allow two services
using different communication protocols to communicate with each other.
C. An enterprise service bus commonly provides service broker-related features that allow two services to
communicate even though they use different communication protocols and different data models (that
represent the same business document).
D. All of these statements are true.
Answer: D

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NO.8 A SOAP message is an XML document that is comprised of a set of pre-defined parts. Which of the
following are parts that can be found in a SOAP message?
A. Envelope
B. Body
C. Header
D. Footer
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.9 The XML language is expressed through the use of:
A. elements or tags
B. databases or repositories
C. services or components
D. service compositions or orchestrations
Answer: A

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NO.10 WS-Addressing is most commonly associated with __________________ functionality.
A. process management
B. policy enforcement
C. message routing
D. choreography
Answer: C

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NO.11 XML can be used to structure data passed between REST services, but REST introduces rules that limit
the extent to which XML elements and attributes can be nested.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.12 Identify what is wrong with the following statement: "I have a single Calculator component that provides
basic math functions. I'm exposing this component as a component-based service for internal service
consumers that are also component-based. I'm exposing this component as a SOAP-based Web service
for internal and external service consumers that support SOAP messaging. I'm also exposing this
component as a REST service for external service consumers that prefer to access its functions via HTTP
methods. I'm also exposing this component as a service agent for service consumers that support explicit
invocation via a service contract."
A. A single component cannot be exposed as a component-based service, a SOAP-based Web service
and a REST service at the same time.
B. SOAP-based Web service consumer programs cannot be both internally and externally located.
C. The uniform contract required by REST services does not support the use of HTTP methods.
D. Service agents are event-driven and are therefore not explicitly invoked via a service contract.
Answer: D

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NO.13 I would like to extend my WSDL definition to include a programmatically consumable statement that
communicates that upon receiving a message the service will add an entry to an event log. Which
technology should I use?
A. Mashup
B. XSLT
C. REST
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.14 A __________________ establishes a common access point generally based on HTTP methods used
by __________________.
A. WSDL definition, SOAP-based Web service
B. uniform contract, REST services
C. XML schemas, components
D. None of the above
Answer: B

SOA Certified Professional   S90-02A   S90-02A

NO.15 Data model transformation is a core service function that can be performed by proven technologies
that have been around for years. Therefore, it is recommended that you look for opportunities to apply this
technology wherever possible, especially in larger, more complex service compositions.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.16 SOAP-based Web services can be designed for use within traditional RPC-style distributed solutions
or for use in service-oriented solutions.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.17 A SOAP-based Web service is required to transmit an XML-based invoice document to a REST
service. However, the SOAP-based Web service is designed to represent invoice data using an XML
schema that is different from the XML schema used within the REST service. How can the disparity
between the XML schemas, used by these two services, be overcome so that they can exchange the
invoice document?
A. A layer of data format transformation logic needs to be introduced based on mashup technologies,
such as DTD and WS-Transform.
B. A layer of protocol transformation logic needs to be introduced based on Web technologies, such as
HTTP and FTP.
C. A layer of data model transformation logic needs to be introduced, based on XML technologies, such
as XSLT.
D. There is no technique or technology for overcoming differences between XML schemas.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following are associated with the functionality provided by a typical enterprise service
bus?
A. reliable message delivery
B. intermediate message routing
C. temporary storage of messages in queues
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.19 XML schemas are comparable to database records. Therefore, XML documents that are based on
XML schemas are comparable to database data models.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.20 If Service B is invoked by Service A and then Service B invokes Service C and all of this happens as
part of the same service activity, then Service B would be considered:
A. an intermediary
B. a service agent
C. an ultimate receiver
D. an initial sender
Answer: A

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