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Code d'Examen: C2020-642
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Cognos 10 BI Scorecard Developer)
Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

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NO.1 How would the scorecard developer delete the Marketing scorecard and move its children under the
Corporate scorecard.?
A. In the user interface, drag the children to the Corporate scorecard and then delete the Marketing
scorecard.
B. In the user interface, mark the Marketing scorecard for deletion, drag the Corporate scorecard and run
re-calculate metrics derived values.
C. In the .cmo file, re-assign the parent to the children scorecard and then mark the Marketing scorecard
for deletion.
D. In the .cmdfile. re-assign the parent to the children scorecard and then mark the Marketing scorecard
for deletion.
Answer: C

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NO.2 An administrator attempted to transfer metric values from the staging area into the metric store.
However, not all of the metrics were populated with expected values. In which table can the administrator
locate the rejected rows for review, correction, and reloading?
A. KPI_VALUE_STAGE_REJECTS
B. OBJECT_STAGE_REJECTS
C. METRIC_TYPE_STAGE_REJECTS
D. OBJECT_NOTE_STAGE_REJECTS
Answer: A

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NO.3 A tab-delimited file with a cmo extension can be used to create what type of object?
A. Scorecards
B. Metric types
C. Calendar levels
D. Permissions
Answer: A

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NO.4 A user needs to update target values ONLY for:
Americas Return quantity %
Americas Return quantity % Defective product
Americas Return quantity % Incomplete product
What minimum permissions MUST be applied on the objects for that user?
A. Write target values permissions to the Americas scorecard and read permissions to all ancestor
scorecards.
B. Write permissions to the three metrics and traverse permissions to all ancestor scorecards.
C. Write target values permissions to the three metrics and read permissions to all ancestor scorecards
D. Write permissions to the Americas scorecard and read permissions to all ancestor scorecards
Answer: C

IBM examen   C2020-642   C2020-642

NO.5 Which activities can only be performed by the Metric Store Administrator?
A. Set policies.
B. Create the root scorecard.
C. Run import and export options.
D. Add links to a CognosBI report.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A tab-delimited file with a cmm extension contains what type of objects?
A. Metrics
B. Metric types
C. Metric values
D. Import sources
Answer: B

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NO.7 What must be done to load the data successfully into Metric Studio using structured query language
(SQL) scripts?
A. Perform the task Recalculate metric store derived values after each script execution.
B. Perform the task Import data from files into staging area after each script execution
C. Structure the query language to map data from the relational database to the content store.
D. Structure the query language to map data from the relational database to the staging tables
Answer: D

IBM   certification C2020-642   C2020-642   C2020-642

NO.8 Which tile extension must be used on the tab-delimited file that defines relationships between objects?
A. .cmo
B. .cmr
C. .cml
D. .cmm
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which statement is true about staging tables?
A. Staging tables map to Data ManagerTables
B. Staging tables map to tab-delimited files
C. Staging tables map to tables in the data warehouse
D. Staging tables map to tables in the content store
Answer: B

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NO.10 What directory contains log files needed to troubleshoot problems importing data?
A. installation_location/logs/MetricStorelnstall
B. installation_location/logs/MetricMaintenance
C. installation_location/logs/MetricUpgradePackage
D. installation_location/logs/MetricStoreUpgrade
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: A2040-917
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: Administering IBM Connections 3.0)
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

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NO.1 Joe has installed and enabled the mobile feature. He has been using the self-signed
SSL certificate
produced by WebSphere Application Server, rather than having a trusted certificate.
What must he do to allow iPhone and iPod Touch users to access secure pages from their
devices without
receiving warnings about the untrusted certificate?
A. The mobile feature does not support authenticated access or HTTPS communication.
B. The mobile feature does not support authenticated access or HTTPS communication.
C. Nothing. The iPhone and iPod Touch devices automatically trust the self-signed certificate
and allow
the user to access Connections information without warnings being shown.
D. Send an email to his users with the certificate as an attachment, ask them to open the
attachment from the device. When they do, the device recognizes it, and installs the
certificate.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Juan is preparing Tivoli Directory Integrator to populate and maintain Profiles records,
and he must
configure the environment so that the Connections and Tivoli Directory Integrator solution
tasks can
connect to the database hosting the Profiles database. How does he configure the database
drivers so
that they are available to the solution?
A. He copies the database JDBC drivers to the jvm/jre/lib/ext subdirectory of the Tivoli
Directory Integrator
installation.
B. No driver configuration is necessary, because all database connections are managed by
the database
client software.
C. He updates the Tivoli Directory Integrator solution's profiles_tdi.properties file, and sets the
dbrepos_jdbc_driver property to a local directory path containing the database JDBC drivers.
D. He updates the ibmdisrv file in the Tivoli Directory Integrator installation directory and adds
a the local
directory path containing the database JDBC drivers using the "-driverpath" parameter on the
Java
invocation command.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Baxter just installed the Search application on multiple nodes. What configuration
does Baxter need to
perform to initialize the search index on all nodes?
A. Set SEARCH_INDEX_DIR on all nodes to the same network share
B. Copy the search index to the same place on each node
C. Build the search index on each node
D. Nothing; the index is automatically created across all the nodes
Answer: B

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NO.4 Bob needs to configure federated repositories using LDAP over SSL. Identify which of
the following
tasks is not required to enable SSL communication over LDAP.?
A. Change the port number to the SSL port of the LDAP server.
B. Select the SSL alias defined by Bob in the trust store in the federated repositories
configuration.
C. Add a signer certificate to the trust store in WebSphere Application Server by retrieving
the certificate
from the LDAP port.
D. Generate a self-signed certificate with an alias using the ikey manager utility and add it to
the
Websphere Application Server certificate store.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Dahlia is installing Connections on a Microsoft Windows operating system. She has
chosen to use the
text installation command window instead of the graphical one. Which of the following
commands allows
her to launch the installation console interface on Microsoft Windows?
A. install_root.sh
B. No console install option exists in Connections 3. Dahlia must use the silent installation
process
instead.
C. install.bat -console
D. LCconfig.exe -console
Answer: B

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NO.6 Patrick has defined an IBM HTTP Server and mapped his installed features to it.
However, he still sees
that the port numbers are in the URL when he uses a link from the navigation bar. What is
the most likely
reason this is happening?
A. The host alias has not been defined for his features.
B. The feature's port numbers have not been removed from the serverindex.xml file.
C. The feature's port numbers must be removed from the IBM HTTP Servers httpd.conf file.
D. The feature's port numbers have not been removed from the LotusConnections-config.xml
file.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Judy wrote an audit tool that plugs into Connections using the Event SPI. How is an
Event SPI
implementation deployed?
A. The extension is a stand-alone JAR file that must be added to every EAR file. This
process can be
manually copied to the EAR or deployed using the WebSphere Application Server
admininstrative
application update tools.
B. Judy must create a WAR file that must then be deployed to every EAR file that you want to
audit. The
LotusConnections-config.xml file must be updated by adding a new service entry.
C. The extension must be included in an EAR file and deployed to an existing or new cluster.
The
LotusConnections-config.xml file must be updated by adding a new service entry.
D. The extension is deployed as a WebSphere Application Server shared library.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Baxter has just finished installing everything in Connections except Files and Wikis. He
has now
changed his mind and decided that they need Files. What must Baxter do to install Files?
A. Install the Files.ear file from within the WebSphere Application Server administration
console.
B. Connections needs to be uninstalled and then reinstalled with Files.
C. Files is always installed, it just needs to be enabled.
D. Use the IBM Installation Manager, select Modify, and add Files.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Arthur, the administrator, has just configured the <languageSelector> element in the
LotusConnections-config.xml file with a value of defaultLanguage="en" and no additional
langage
elements listed. What is the user experience for Miguel, a user, when he accesses
Connections features
with a locale setting of "es" (Spanish) in his browser?
A. The language that Miguel can view the Connections interface in a web browser is based
on his
preferredLanguage.
B. The default value of the server operating system that Connections was installed on is
French, so
Miguel is only able to see the user interface in French.
C. Because the default language is "en" and no additional language elements are included in
the
LotusConnections-config.xml file, Miguel only sees the English Connections interface.
D. Miguel sees the user interface in Spanish because the browser locale setting overrides the
default
language setting in the LotusConnections-config.xml file. But, he can select any language
that he wants
from the toggle button.
Answer: C

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NO.10 When you installed Connections you specified Oracle for the RDBMS system to store
data. What must
you do to enable the applications to use the JDBC driver?
A. Install the Oracle thin client on all WebSphere Application Server nodes.
B. Install the Oracle thin client on the deployment manager and stop and restart all nodes.
C. Copy the Oracle JDBC driver to the same location on all nodes.
D. Install Oracle SQL Plus on all WebSphere Application Server nodes and configure the
TNS Listener
with the Oracle server connection URL.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: A4040-109
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: Power Systems Virtualization Technical Support for AIX and Linux -v2)
Questions et réponses: 180 Q&As

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NO.1 What tool can an architect use to determine which is the smallest POWER7 server that will provide
equal or better overall performance than a POWER5 570?
A. Facts and Features Guide
B. LPAR Validation Tool
C. Configurator for eBusiness
D. Server Magic
Answer: A

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NO.2 An administrator has a requirement to back up a VIO server (VIOS) so that it can be rebuilt in the
event of a disaster.
Which set of actions will achieve this requirement.?
A. Backup all non rootvg volume groups using savevg. Backup all Storage Pool Information. Run a
mksysb of the system.
B. Save "Upgrade Data" on the HMC. Backup all non rootvg volume groups using savevg. Run a mksysb
of the VIOS with the -U flag.
C. Backup non rootvg structures using savevgstruct. Capture virtual mappings to a file using viosbr. Run a
backupios
D. Capture the virtual network tuning to a file using the optimizenet command. Capture all virtual device
attributes to a file using the lsattr command. Run a backupios.
Answer: C

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NO.3 An administrator must remove any installed efixes before attempting to install a new VIO Fix Pack.
Which VIO command will advise if any VIO efixes are actually present?
A. lslpp
B. emgr
C. lssw
D. oem_platform_level
Answer: C

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NO.4 When attempting to install a VIO client using NIM, an adminstrator finds that no disks are available
for installation. The disks are provided by NPIV through the virtual Fibre Channel adapter as described
here:
Which of the following explains why is the administrator unable to see the disks?
A. The virtual fibre channel device has not been assigned to the client.
B. The HBA on the VIO server is not connected to the SAN.
C. The fibre device drivers are missing from the SPOT.
D. The LUNs have been incorrectly zoned.
Answer: D

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NO.5 A Power 720 is being used to build 2 environments: Test and Production, with 2 LPARs in each
environment. Processor resources must be separated between the Test and Production environments to
reduce possible contention, while still being able to share processor resources inside each own
environment.
What are the two features required, as a minimum, to accomplish this? (Select 2)
A. IVM
B. HMC
C. PowerVM Express
D. PowerVM Standard
E. IVE
F. IBM Systems Director
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 Requirements for a disaster recovery site are being collected. When considering restoring a VIO
Server mksysb to disaster recovery hardware,
what is required to ensure automatic virtual device recreation?
A. LPAR profiles must be accurately recreated on the foreign machine
B. Backups of both mksysb and user-defined structures are required from the VIO Server
C. The foreign machine must be of the same model and type
D. Configuration of the existing HMC needs to be preserved
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following is required to support AME?
A. AIX LPARs
B. Virtual I/O Server
C. A maximum of 4GB of RAM per LPAR
D. On-demand memory feature enabled
Answer: A

certification IBM   A4040-109   A4040-109

NO.8 An administrator is attempting to configure a new deployment of 56 POWER7 Blades across 4 IBM
BladeCenter H chassis. Each blade will be installed with an IVM and 2 LPARs.IVM is installed and the
administrator checks that both LHEA ports are reporting a Link State of "Up." 2 LPARs are created and the
network traffic balanced by allocating one LHEA port to the first LPAR, the second port to the other. After
successfully installing the first LPAR via NIM, the administrator finds the second LPAR fails to netboot.
What should the administrator verify on the BladeCenter Chassis?
A. That 4 power supplies (PSU) have been installed.
B. That both the external LHEA ports have been cabled.
C. That a secondary I/O module has been installed and cabled.
D. That the Multi-Core Scaling (MCS) attribute is correctly set on both LHEA ports.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: A2090-422
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: InfoSphere QualityStage v8.5 Assessment)
Questions et réponses: 124 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two statements describe the importance of standardizing data? (Choose two)
A. Apply a consistent length.
B. Prepare data for matching
C. Apply a consistent data type.
D. Make data a consistent language.
E. Apply a consistent representation.
Answer: B,E

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NO.2 You are required to analyze source system data with an Investigate stage. Which two
functions can
this stage perform? (Choose two)
A. Classifying tokens
B. Identifying duplicates
C. Changing invalid data
D. Creating reference tables
E. Creating pattern distributions
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 What does the qs_Inv_Pattern field represent in the Pattern Report when using Word
Investigation
with one of the provided domain address rule sets?
A. A value example of address data that match the pattern
B. An individual word value that is found inside the address input columns
C. A generated pattern that describes the address input columns
D. The classification of the token that is based on the address domain rule set
Answer: C

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NO.4 If rule changes are required to a QualityStage Standardization rule set, which two of the
following are
the correct steps to implement in your environment? (Choose two)
A. Changes are rarely required in development of an application
B. Rule sets can not be changed in the QualityStage environment
C. Copy the rule set, rename it then edit the newly created rule set
D. Edit the default rule set delivered with the product then save changes
E. Use the pattern override section to make changes
Answer: C,E

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NO.5 After standardization, which investigation stage would best help determine the amount
of work
required to improve the standardize process of client name data?
A. Word investigation of primary name field
B. Character Discrete investigation of source client name fields
C. Character Concatenate investigations of Input Pattern and source client name fields
D. Character Concatenate investigations of the Unhandled Pattern and source name fields
Answer: D

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NO.6 What do you do if you need to only back-up a rule set?
A. Highlight the rule set ET?and exportHighlight the rule set ?ET?and export
B. Highlight the rule set ET?and provision allHighlight the rule set ?ET?and provision all
C. Highlight all rule set components and export
D. Export the job with a standardization stage that includes the rule set and choose the
nclude dependent
items?Export the job with a standardization stage that includes the rule set and choose the
?nclude
dependent items
Answer: C

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NO.7 What two types of data issues generally occur within enterprise data stores? (Choose
two)
A. Data myopia
B. Referential Integrity
C. Information standards applied
D. Consistency across all tables
E. Data surprises in individual fields
Answer: A,E

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NO.8 When using word investigation with one of the provided name domain rule sets, what
does the
qsInvCount field represent on the Token Report for the name columns being analyzed?
A. A frequency count of the number of names in a record
B. A frequency count indicating how many times a pattern was encountered
C. A total count that indicates how many name columns have tokens
D. A frequency count that indicates how many times the word tokens are encountered
Answer: D

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NO.9 What pattern action operand denotes the Universal class ?
A. &
B. @
C. ?
D. **
Answer: D

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NO.10 If an address starting with the word 'Ignore' is being stored in a variable named temp
and you want to
place this value in a field called AdditionalAddress. Which Pattern Action code would
accomplish this?
A. COPY temp (0:5) {AdditionalAddress}
B. COPY temp (1:6) {AdditionalAddress}
C. COPY temp (IGNORE) {AdditionalAddress}
D. COPY temp [-IGNORE] {AdditionalAddress}
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following is NOT a goal for re-engineering data?
A. Enrich data
B. Prevent source data quality issues
C. Create multiple views of business entities
D. Identify hidden attributes from free-form fields
Answer: B

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NO.12 What 4 files are part of the QualityStage rule set?
A. IPO, ITO, UCL, UTO
B. IPO, PTO, UPD, UTD
C. PRS, PTO, ITO, OVR
D. PRC, TBL, PTO, OVR
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which statement represents the survivorship rule execution order?
A. Order of the rules is irrelevant.
B. The last rule takes precedence.
C. The first rule takes precedence.
D. The Survive stage will sort and order the rules.
Answer: B

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NO.14 What two graphical reports are produced by an Investigate stage? (Choose two)
A. Word Pattern Report
B. Column Pattern Report
C. Frequency Word Report
D. Frequency Pattern Report
E. Invalid Token Frequency Report
Answer: C,D

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NO.15 How many operands are present in the following Pattern Action language pattern?

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Code d'Examen: C2090-423
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Information Analyzer v8.5)
Questions et réponses: 118 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is true about ODBC DSN's (data source names)?
A. No ODBC DSN's are required.
B. You must manually create the Information Analyzer database DSN.
C. You must create a DSN for the data sources on both the client and server.
D. The Information Analyzer database DSN is automatically created at installation time.
Answer: B

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NO.2 When creating a Scheduling View, which two of the following options can be
configured? (Choose
two.)
A. Status > Schedule > Pending
B. Status > Task Run > Abnormally Ended
C. Status > Task Run > Successfully Ended
D. Origins > Information Analyzer > IA Export Project
E. Origins > Information Analyzer > IA Report Execution
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 When working with Information Analyzer reports, which two functions require use of
the reporting
functionality in the Information Server Web Console? (Choose two.)
A. Add the report to Favorites.
B. Create the report as a PDF.
C. Grant Access to report result.
D. Create a Log Messages report.
E. Choose Expiration Policy for Report.
Answer: C,E

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NO.4 You are setting up an automated process to run a set of data rules on a weekly basis.
You want to
evaluate the execution status via the Information Analyzer command line interface (CLI)
before running
subsequent reports. Which of the following do you need to evaluate?
A. Select the -runTasks option specifying the -getExecutionStatus parameter and evaluate
the status
attribute of the <RuleExecutionResult> element.
B. Select the -getExecutionHistory option specifying the -ruleName parameter and evaluate
the status
attribute of the <RuleExecutionResult> element.
C. Select the -getExecutableRule option specifying the -getExecutionHistory and -ruleName
parameters
and evaluate the status attribute of the <DataRuleResult> element.
D. Select the -getExecutableRule/ExecutionHistory option specifying the -ruleName
parameter and
evaluate the status attribute of the <DataRuleExecutionHistory> element.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which statement is true about analysis settings?
A. Default Analysis settings can be created for individual users.
B. Default Analysis settings cannot be configured for all projects.
C. Default Analysis settings can be configured at the project level.
D. Default Analysis settings are controlled by the DataStage Analysis project.
Answer: C

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NO.6 When analyzing large volumes of source data in column analysis, which two
statements identify ways
you can improve processing performance? (Choose two.)
A. Use data sampling in Information Analyzer.
B. Add more space to the Metadata repository.
C. Modify the project Analysis settings to increase the buffer pools.
D. Modify the DataStage apt config file to use multiple nodes and parallel process the data.
E. Modify the Information Analyzer Analysis database config file to parallel process the data.
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 You are working with a subject matter expert who does not have the Information
Server console
installed, but needs to receive a detailed value frequency distribution as a comma-delimited
(csv) file.
Which two of the following options can you use to deliver the required file? (Choose two.)
A. Go to the Investigate>Table Management functions, select the frequency distribution file;
export as a
Delimited file; and send the file.
B. Go to the Investigate>Publish Analysis Result functions, select the frequency distribution
file; export as
a Delimited file; and send the file.
C. Go to the Reports menu, select the Data Rule Frequency Distribution report; choose the
TXT output
option and generate the report; and provide the URL to the report output.
D. Use the IAAdmin command line interface (CLI); select the -getColumnOutputTable option
providing the
correct project and column names and the -csv format parameter; run the command and
send the file.
E. Use the IAAdmin command line interface (CLI); select the -getFrequencyDistribution
option providing
the correct project and column names and the -xsl format parameter to a csv-formatting
stylesheet ; run
the command and send the file.
Answer: A,E

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NO.8 When analyzing large number of columns in Information Analyzer, which two
components may require
capacity planning review? (Choose two.)
A. Disk space on the Engine layer.
B. Disk space on the Application Server.
C. Buffer pools on the Application Server.
D. Information Server Metadata repository.
E. Information Analyzer Analysis database.
Answer: A,E

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NO.9 You are installing Information Analyzer and plan to use Oracle as the Information
Analyzer analysis
database.
Which statement is true?
A. The metadata database must also be Oracle.
B. The metadata database does not have to be Oracle.
C. Only Oracle RAC (Real Application Clusters) is supported.
D. The Information Analyzer analysis database can not be Oracle.
Answer: B

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NO.10 You are managing a business analyst who is annotating column profile details with
issues and
resolutions.
You wish to see how many annotations remain open for resolution. Which report should you
create and
review?
A. Metric Summary Project Status report
B. Metadata Summary-Column Profile Status report
C. Project Status- Project Summary by Notes Status report
D. Domain Quality Summary- Column Quality by Status report
Answer: C

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NO.11 You are trying to identify a multi-column primary key in a table of 50 million records.
What steps can
you take to minimize performance impact?
A. None, you must always assess full volume of data.
B. Use a data sample; apply regression analysis to identify statistically likely candidates;
apply duplicate
check.
C. Use a data sample; limit the test to specific columns at one time; incrementally increase
the number of
possible column combinations.
D. Use a data sample; apply functional dependency analysis to remove dependent columns;
incrementally increase the number of possible column combinations.
Answer: C

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NO.12 While reviewing the results of a data rule test you find a logic error. Which option will
allow you to
troubleshoot this error?
A. Set the debug option when submitting the test job, then review the log.
B. Open a command window on the client, submit the job and view the log.
C. Set Retain Scripts to on and use DataStage Director to review the job log.
D. Create a log view to capture the CAS log. Rerun the rule and review the log.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following is the correct HTTP API request format for creating a data rule
definition in an
existing project?
A. http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/create?ruleDefinition
B. http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/create?projectContent
C.http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/project?projectName=<YourProjectName>
D.http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/ruleDefinition?projectName=<YourProject
Name>&rule
Name=<YourRuleName>
Answer: B

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NO.14 In a large enterprise, the human resource business unit wants to ensure the restriction
of the analysis
and analysis results to a set of HR managers. Which configuration will support this
requirement?
A. Use operating system IDs and database IDs to restrict access.
B. Use Information Server roles and security to restrict access to analysis and results.
C. Install an Information Analyzer environment (analysis server, analysis engine, analysis
database) for
the HR business unit.
D. Install an analysis engine for each business unit and one analysis database using
Information server
security to restrict access.
Answer: C

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NO.15 You submitted a column analysis job with the "Retain Scripts" set to no. The column
analysis job
finished with an "error encountered" final message. You have access to the DataStage
Director client.
Which option would allow you to find the source of the error.?
A. Create a log view in Information Analyzer and rerun the job. Examine the log to determine
the error.
B. Rerun the job with the "Retain Scripts" turned on. The error message will be returned to
the Information
Analyzer status window.
C. Submit the job from Information Analyzer. After it finishes log onto DataStage Director and
examine the
job log to determine the source of the error.
D. Submit the job from Information Analyzer and place it on hold. Log onto DataStage
Director, release
the job and examine the job log to determine the source of the error.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: C2020-706
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Cognos Financial Statement Reporting Developer)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 A user has certain objects tagged as custom group "Q1", but they should be tagged as
"Q2/Q3" only.
How can this be resolved?
A. In the Status by Object table in the Report Summary node, highlight the objects and
change the group
from "Q1" to "Q2/Q3".
B. Select the objects in the Section Pane, right-click, and select "Q2/Q3".
C. Navigate to each individual object, click on the "Set Customized Group" icon, deselect
"Q1" and select
"Q2/Q3" from the list.
D. Navigate to each individual object, click on the "Set Customized Group" icon and select
"Q2/Q3' from
the list.
Answer: C

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NO.2 An administrator is working on a quarterly report and needs to add the new custom
group "Q2/Q3".
Where can the administrator add this new group?
A. in the "Customized Group" table under Administration > Resources
B. in the Report Summary node of the report
C. in any FSR object of the report, open the "Set Customized Group" icon and add a new
group to the list
D. the custom group is added to the workflow for the object
Answer: A

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NO.3 To use a workflow rule, which two variables are required to be set up? (Choose two.)
A. ##WRI
B. ##IRS
C. ##WR
D. ##WS
Answer: C, D

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NO.4 A user created a snapshot of a report. Now they would like to send this snapshot for
approval. How
would a user view the snapshot that was created.?
A. Use the "View Snapshot" icon.
B. Go to Tools > Snapshots.
C. Go to Administration > Resources > View Snapshots.
D. Right-click on the Section Pane and select View Snapshots.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What are two functions of a user role? (Choose two.)
A. Generate selected sections.
B. Create a workflow.
C. Work on assigned objects.
D. Create a report.
Answer: A, C

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NO.6 The report team finished their first draft of their report and now they would like to send
a snapshot of this
report for review. How would a user create a snapshot?
A. Use the "Create Snapshot" icon.
B. Generate the entire report and check the "Save as Snapshot" option.
C. Every time a user saves, FSR will automatically create a new snapshot.
D. Go to Tools > Snapshots, then select the "Save as Snapshot" option.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A company compiled its 2010 Q2 quarterly report using an OLAP data source and a
query variable for
the quarter. They are now performing a rollover from the 2010 Q2 quarterly report to the 2010
Q3
quarterly report. How do you ensure that the OLAP connection for the new Q3 quarterly
report will
be updated with data from 2010 Q3?
A. Change the value for the quarter query variable from Q2 to Q3.
B. Update the value of the quarter field in the OLAP connection to Q3.
C. Change the ##S variable for the quarter to Q3.
D. Change the ##R variable for the quarter to Q3.
Answer: A

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NO.8 The "Select the custom group to display" dropdown list in the Select Report dialog
allows a user to filter
the objects that will display when a report is loaded. How can this be enabled for a user?
A. in the Tools > Report Setup window
B. on the user's machine, a configuration key will need to be added to the FSR configuration
file
C. in the Task Permissions list in the Users table
D. in the Report Summary node of the report
Answer: B

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NO.9 A client is loading data from an Excel spreadsheet but is not certain whether to enable
the Allow query
variables in the path and sheet name. What do you tell the client?
A. This should never be enabled; it is not a supported function in the current version.
B. This feature will provide a dynamic link to Excel source files during the rollover process.
C. This feature will enable you to link data across reports.
D. This feature needs to be used to be able to load an Excel sheet; if it is not selected, the
user will
receive an error when trying to complete the load.
Answer: B

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NO.10 You have the administrator role and want to give a user special administrative tasks.
Which three tasks
can be granted to the user role by the administrator? (Choose three.)
A. Add query to Excel.
B. Modify properties of an object.
C. Create sections for the report.
D. Audit report.
E. Assign tasks to user.
Answer: A, B, D

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Code d'Examen: P4070-005
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM System z and z/OS Fundamentals Mastery)
Questions et réponses: 73 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following can identify a base software component?
A.Message format
B.Software update list
C.System log routing table descriptor
D.Three characters in message identifier
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following describes the major difference between and FICON or ESCON
channels?
A.ESCON channels are faster, FICON channels are slower
B.ESCON channels use hard copper connections, FICON channels use fibre connections
C.ESCON channels are more secure than FICON channels
D.FICON channels have higher capacity than ESCON channels
Answer: D

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NO.3 IBM mainframe offers specialty processors (zIIP, zAAP, SAP and IFL).Which of the
following accurately
describes a function of one of these specialty processors?
A.zAAP processors automatically turns off unnecessary computing components.
B.IFL is used by a Linux LPAR or Linux on z/VM
C.zIIP processors automatically run high priority jobs first
D.SAP processors are specially tuned to run the SAP application suite
Answer: B

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NO.4 What master catalog entry relates to the name of a user catalog?
A.HLQ
B.VVDS
C.ALIAS
D.Alternate index
Answer:C

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NO.5 Which of the following describes the z/OS Communications Storage Manager (CSM)?
A.Communications Server disk storage
B.Layered network model storage
C.RFC common storage standard
D.Shared I/O buffer for data flow
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following is true of Type 4 JDBC drivers?
A.Fully written in java, can be ported to any platform that supports DBMS protocol.
B.JDBC API calls platform and database specific code to access the database.
C.JDBC default driver for z/OS
D.Offers the best performance
Answer: A

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NO.7 SSI, Cookie Support, Tracing and Logging, and Persistent Connections are considered
what type of
z/OS-specific HTTP functions?
A.File Caching
B.Security
C.Add-on
D.Basic
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following mainframe technologies requires a coupling facility?
A.CTC ring
B.Shared DASD
C.Parallel Sysplex
D.zAAP
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following enables network devices to communicate with SNA applications
in the z/OS
environment?
A.BTAM
B.VSAM
C.VTAM
D.BDAM
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following z/OS UNIX files determines the behavior of a z/OS HTTP Server
request passed
to a plug-in?
A.plugin-cfg.xml
B.plugin-cfg xml
C.polugin.conf
D.profile
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: C4070-603
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM System z Solution Sales V6)
Questions et réponses: 52 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer recently ordered a zEnterprise with a zBX. Which of the following is the
best action the sales
specialist could take to ensure the customer is satisfied with the new zBX?
A. Propose a Fit For Purpose Study
B. Schedule an implementation planning meeting
C. Propose Extended Warranty Contract for the zBX
D. Propose an Early Ship Program (ESP) for running their AIX applications
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following is a key benefit to customers who deploy zEnterprise compared
to other
solutions?
A. Virtualization and hardware management across multiple platforms
B. A management solution that provides support across multiple x86 hypervisors.
C. A management solution for the complete mulit-vendor infrastructure within a datacenter.
D. A hypervisor infrastructure that allows movement of an application online between
different
architectures.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer requested System z software details and pricing. Which IBM tool would be
utilized to
configure the software products?
A. zPCR
B. zIAW
C. eConfig
D. CFSW
Answer: D

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NO.4 A System z Sales Specialist is preparing a proposal for a z10 customer for a potential
upgrade to
zEnterprise system. They need to propose a z196 model with 20% growth to the existing
capacity. How
can the seller best determine the right model for the customer?
A. Refer to the MIPS table to find the matching model
B. Discuss with the customer to find out what is their preferred model
C. Engage Techline to perform capacity planning on the current machine
D. Use Sales Plays to find correct model
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer is considering Linux solution. There are several competitive solutions under
consideration.
The System z sales specialist is considering System z Solution Edition for Enterprise Linux or
an IBM
Enterprise Linux Server. Which of the following is included in these offering.?
A. Predefined hardware, software, services
B. Predefined hardware, Linux subscription, and Linux services
C. IBM middleware, Extended Warranty, VMContol
D. RACF, zAAP , DirMaint
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: A2040-986
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: Creating IBM Lotus Notes and Domino 8.5 Applications with Xpages and Advanced Techniques )
Questions et réponses: 164 Q&As

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NO.1 Josh needs to associate the Price and ProductName fields of the Sales database with
fields from the
Inventory table in a relational database. His company uses DECS. He has created a Data
Connection
Resource to handle the connection to the Inventory table. What is the next step to make this
connection
available to fields on the Product form?
A. From the Advanced tab of the ACL, select "Allow connection to external databases using
DCRs". From
the Defaults tab of the Product form properties dialog, click Browse by the Data Source
Options and
select the DCR.
B. From the Advanced tab of the database Properties, select "Allow connection to external
databases
using DCRs". From the Data Connection Resource properties, select the Product form under
"Connection
enabled for?
C. From the Advanced tab of the ACL, select "Allow connection to external databases using
DCRs". From
the Security tab of the Form Properties dialog, click Browse by the Data Source Options and
select the
DCR.
D. From the Basics tab of the Database properties, select "Allow connection to external
databases using
DCRs". From the Defaults tab of the Form Properties dialog, click Browse by the Data
Source Options
and select the DCR.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following describes the destination URL that is generated by Lotus
Domino when the user
enters */projects/cio/index.html as the URL?
A. /projects/cio.nsf/index?OpenPage
B. /projects/index.nsf/cio?OpenPage
C. /projects/projects.nsf/cio?OpenPage
D. /projects/cio.nsf/index.html}
Answer: A

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NO.3 Nancy is creating a Web application and she needs anonymous users to be able to
read content and
create certain documents. What does Nancy need to do?
A. Anonymous users cannot create documents if the ACL is set to Reader.
B. Anonymous must be set to Author in the ACL and forms must be blocked to Anonymous
users.
C. Nancy needs to create an Anonymous entry to the ACL with access set to Author. Then,
using
@Formula she needs to validate if a document is being created by an Anonymous user.
D. Nancy needs to create an Anonymous entry to the ACL with access set to Reader and the
option "Write
public documents." She also needs to make the forms Available to Public Access users.
Answer: D

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NO.4 To approve an expense report, Quy goes to a controlled-access section and marks
the Status field
"Approved". Status is a sign-enabled field. When is the signature attached?
A. Immediately
B. When the document is saved
C. When the document is mailed
D. When the document is encrypted
Answer: B

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NO.5 Jim is looking at the Properties dialog box for an agent. Which one of the following best
describes the
use of the "Allow user activation" option?
A. Allows users with Editor access or above in the ACL to run an agent
B. Allows users with Author access or above in the ACL to run an agent
C. Allows users with Editor access or above in the ACL to enable an agent
D. Allows users with Author access or above in the ACL to enable an agent
Answer: C

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NO.6 When enabling his XPages application for mobile access, which best describes the
options Enrique
should consider?
A. The screen size means different navigation might be required.
B. XPages can be viewed without any additional changes on an iPhone or other iOS device.
C. It might be appropriate to include only a subset of functionality because of the different
screen size.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which option best describes the benefits of being Ajax-enabled?
A. You do not need to use agents to interact with the server dynamically.
B. Content and code can be loaded when required, rather than when the page is initially
displayed.
C. Ajax functionality can be implemented with much less coding than a traditional Lotus
Domino web
application.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Monique's laptop was stolen. Monique had locally encrypted the databases on her
machine using
medium encryption. Which one of the following can unauthorized users do?
A. Nothing
B. Compact the databases
C. Read copies of the databases made through the operating system
D. Use their user ids to access local databases on Monique's workstation
Answer: A

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NO.9 DJ is developing his first Lotus Domino application. He wants to show a particular set
of data to
unauthenticated users and provide additional data to authenticated users. Which of the
following can DJ
use to determine whether the user is authenticated or not?
A. @WebName to get the current user's name
B. @UserName, which returns "Anonymous" for unauthenticated users
C. @IsAuthenticated to determine if the user is authenticated or not
D. @WebUserName, which returns an empty string ( "" ) when a user is not authenticated
Answer: B

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NO.10 Marge wants to track user preference information while users navigate through her
Web site, but does
not want to require users to authenticate when accessing the site. Which of the following
should she use
to track the user information?
A. Cookies
B. Servlets
C. User profile documents
D. The users must authenticate
Answer: A

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NO.11 Barney imports a WSDL file into a LotusScript script library, which generates code to
call the Web
service methods defined by the WSDL file. Where can he use this script library.?
A. Only in agents
B. Only in agents that run on the server
C. Only in agents and form or view actions
D. Anywhere that LotusScript can be used
Answer: D

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NO.12 Dierdre is periodically asked to update the Readers field in documents created with the
SalesOrder form.
If a person's name changes, they are no longer able to access documents they'd been able
to access in
the past. Dierdre would like the Readers fields to be automatically updated when someone's
name has
been changed in the Domino directory. How can she do this?
A. Open the Security tab of the SalesOrder Form properties. Place a checkmark next to
"Enable adminp
updates".
B. Open the Advanced tab of the database ACL. In the selection list for Action, choose
"Modify all
Readers and Authors fields".
C. Open the Security tab of the Database properties. In the selection list for Administration
Actions,
choose "Update all Readers and Authors fields".
D. Ask a Notes Administrator to enable "Maintain Reader/Author field consistency" on the
Security tab of
the server document for her application server.
Answer: B

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NO.13 David migrates an XPage application from his development environment to his test
server. When he
tests the application, his browser returns the HTTP 403 error message. What is the most
probable cause?
A. He was developing using Firefox but is now looking at the application in Internet Explorer.
B. The application is signed with a development ID. It needs resigning with an ID trusted to
run XPages on
the test server.
C. The test server is not running the HTTP task.
D. He is opening the application in the Lotus Notes client. XPages applications can only be
viewed on the
web.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Juanes needs to import some data from a custom application not using a standard
database engine,
which is being migrated to a Lotus Notes/Domino application. How can he accomplish this
task?
A. Use Lotus Enterprise Integrator.
B. Import data using one of the built-in connection services like DECS or connectors.
C. Export the data to XML on the old application and import it using XMLT.
D. Export the data from the old application to one or more ASCII files and import them by
using
LotusScript file access methods.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Joy wants to implement single sign-on for her Lotus Domino Web applications. What
does she need to
do?
A. Encode the Single Sign-On form in each database.
B. Enable "Use Single Sign-on" in the database properties.
C. Ensure that all servers are using the same certificate authority.
D. Update the "Session authentication" field in the server's configuration document.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Winnie is enhancing the interface on the Corporate Phone Book Web application. Ted,
the graphics
designer who is providing Winnie with the images for her Domino application, has suggested
that she use
image resource sets. What is a feature that Winnie can incorporate by using image resource
sets?
A. A vertical image set can be used to incorporate effects using the onmouseover,
onmouseout, and
onclick events of an image on an XPage.
B. A vertical image set can be used to incorporate effects using the Normal, Mouse-over,
Selected, and
Mouse-down image states of a Domino Web page image.
C. A horizontal image set can be used to add effects when a user hovers the mouse over an
image. For
example, the normal image could be replaced with a larger image when the mouse hovers
over it.
D. A horizontal image set can be used to add effects when a user hovers the mouse over an
image. For
example the normal image could be replaced with an image with different coloring when the
mouse
hovers over it.
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following statements describes the function of SSL?
A. SSL encrypts the database ahead of transmission by using a SOCKS proxy.
B. SSL encrypts the database by creating a certificate authority as a key ring.
C. SSL encrypts the transmission of HTTP by using the user's ID as an encryption key
D. SSL encrypts the transmission of HTTP by using a registered certificate as an encryption
key.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Mary is posting a discussion database on the Web. She would like to give general
users Author access
to the database, as long as they identify themselves and have registered with her site. Which
one of the
following should Mary do to ensure that all users accessing her database are identified and
have Author
access?
A. Create an Authors field on her forms and set it to Anonymous.
B. Set the database ACL Default entry to No Access and set the Anonymous to Author.
C. Set the database ACL Default entry to Author and set the Anonymous to No Access.
D. Set the form security property, "Who can create documents with this form", to only allow
users in the
Author role.
Answer: C

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NO.19 What is the purpose of using XSLT in a Lotus Domino Web application?
A. To define what DXL should be available for export.
B. To allow a Web service to interact with a Java agent.
C. To display a view as HTML without using a Java applet.
D. To transform XML documents to HTML or even to another XML document.
Answer: D

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NO.20 An XPage application is mostly made up of the following elements:
A. Forms, views, subforms, pages, framesets, and agents
B. Forms, views, XPages, CSS and themes, and outlines
C. XPages only
D. Forms, views, XPages, custom controls, and CSS and themes
Answer: D

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