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Code d'Examen: 250-240
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Storage Foundation 4.0 for UNIX)
Questions et réponses: 128 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three plex types are valid in Volume Manager? (Choose three.)
A. complete
B. partial
C. log
D. sparse
E. partition
Answer: ACD

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NO.2 The Volume View window in VEA displays the characteristics of the volumes on the disks. After
selecting a volume or disk group in VEA, how is the Volume View window displayed?
A. Tools -> Volume View
B. Tools -> Volume -> View
C. Actions -> Volume -> View
D. Actions -> Volume View
Answer: D

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NO.3 In order to resize an existing volume and its file system in Volume Manager while it remains online,
the file system must be _____.
A. in the bootdg disk group
B. checked before the process
C. shared across disk groups
D. mounted during the process
Answer: D

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NO.4 You are analyzing the output of the vxdisk alldgs list command. There are no entries in the DISK and
GROUPcolumns; however, you see "online" in the output of the STATUS column. Which three explain the
"online" status of the disk in this scenario? (Choose three.)
A. The disk is in the free disk pool.
B. The disk has been initialized or encapsulated.
C. The disk is NOT currently assigned to a disk group.
D. The disk is currently deported on another system.
Answer: ABC

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NO.5 Which two virtual objects are components of a Volume Manager volume? (Choose two.)
A. VM disk
B. subdisk
C. plex
D. physical disk
Answer: BC

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NO.6 Which area of a disk is used by Volume Manager to store information such as disk headers,
configuration copies, and kernel logs?
A. the public region
B. the private region
C. the virtual region
D. the CDS region
Answer: B

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NO.7 You have a disk group named testdg, which you want to rename to engdg. To rename the disk group
from the command line, you __________.
A. must destroy the disk group and then re-create the disk group using the new name
B. must use the vxdg change command, which performs a deport and an import in a single step
C. use vxdg deport followed by vxdg import, and the volumes are automatically started in the disk group
after the import
D. use vxdg deport followed by vxdg import, then you must manually start volumes in the disk group by
using the vxvol command
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the virtual object that Volume Manager uses to represent the structured or ordered collection of
subdisks?
A. volume
B. plex
C. vmdisk
D. disk group
Answer: B

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NO.9 When using Volume Manager, what is considered the correct definition for RAID-5?
A. Combines mirroring with striping or concatenation where the mirroring occurs below the striping or
concatenation in order to mirror each column of the stripe or each chunk of the concatenation
B. Refers to mirroring where data from one disk is duplicated on another disk to provide redundancy and
enable fast recovery.
C. Refers to simple concatenation or striping where disk space is combined sequentially from two or more
disks or striped across two or more disks. RAID-0 does NOT provide data redundancy.
D. Refers to a striped layout that includes the calculation of parity information and the striping of that
parity information across the disks.
Answer: D

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NO.10 In this volume layout the mirroring occurs below the striping or concatenation in order to mirror each
column of the stripe or each chunk of the concatenation. This type of layout is called a layered volume.
What is the correct RAID level for a volume layout that combines mirroring with striping or concatenation?
A. RAID-1+0
B. RAID-0+1
C. RAID-5
D. RAID-2
Answer: A

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NO.11 What are three advantages of a properly configured traditional mirrored volume layout? (Choose
three.)
A. improved reliability and availability
B. decreases the need for Volume Manager disks
C. improved read performance
D. fast recovery through logging
Answer: ACD

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NO.12 Which two commands can be used to remove a mirror from a volume? (Choose two.)
A. vxassist remove mirror
B. vxdisk
C. vxremove mirror
D. vxplex
Answer: AD

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NO.13 You want to track changes to files and directories in a file system to improve performance of a search
engineapplication. Which VERITAS File System feature do you enable?
A. the intent log
B. the file change log
C. the object location table file
D. the quotas file
Answer: B

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NO.14 What must be performed before creating an empty concatenated volume in a new disk group?
A. encapsulate the volume and assign a disk group
B. initialize the disks and assign them to a disk group
C. create an empty subdisk in the disk group and assign the volume
D. in VEA, select Actions -> Volume -> Disk Group -> New
Answer: B

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NO.15 You want to remove the datavol volume from the datadg disk group by using the command line. A file
system is currently mounted on the volume. You are sure that you do NOT need the data in the volume.
What is the appropriate sequence of steps to remove the volume and avoid system errors?
A. remove the volume by using the vxremove command (The file system will be unmounted automatically,
and the filesystem table file will be automatically updated to remove the entry for the file system.)
B. unmount the file system, then remove the volume using vxassist remove, and then manually edit the
file system tablefile to remove the entry for the file system
C. remove the volume by using the vxassist remove command (The file system will be unmounted
automatically;however, you must then manually edit the file system table file to remove the entry for the
file system.)
D. unmount the file system, then remove the volume using vxremove, and then manually edit the file
system table file to remove the entry for the file system
Answer: B

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NO.16 You have used the vxprint command with the appropriate options to save information about the volume
layouts on your system. Now, you want to use vxprint to provide useful information that can be used later
as input for the vxmake command to help rebuild your volume configurations. Which option must be used
with vxprint?
A. -r
B. -t
C. -a
D. -m
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which three are characteristics of a disk group? (Choose three.)
A. collection of Volume Manager disks
B. eases the use of resources in a high availability environment
C. allows Volume Manager objects to span multiple disk groups
D. represents a management and configuration boundary
Answer: ABD

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NO.18 What are three advantages of a concatenated volume layout? (Choose three.)
A. removes size restrictions
B. provides load balancing
C. better usage of space
D. simplifies administration
Answer: ACD

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NO.19 When using the New Volume Wizard in VEA, what are the two layout options available to create a
layered volume? (Choose two.)
A. Concatenated Mirrored
B. Striped Mirrored
C. Mirrored Striped
D. Mirrored Concatenated
Answer: AB

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NO.20 Which command is used to move the contents of the volumes from one disk to another?
A. vxremove
B. vxevac
C. vxdg move
D. vxdg evac
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 250-622
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Implementation of DP Solutions for UNIX using NBU 5.0)
Questions et réponses: 113 Q&As

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NO.1 What are three recommendations for NetBackup media server installation? (Choose three. )
A. You should remove any other vendor backup software.
B. At least one tape drive should be available for backup operations.
C. All NetBackup servers should recognize and be recognized by their client systems.
D. You should make certain that you have a server of a supported hardware type running a supported
version of an OS.
Answer: ACD

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NO.2 You are installing NetBackup Database agents into an environment with a high level of change control.
You are using all of the relevant Database agents.Which database forces you to restart the database
though it does not necessarily require rebooting the whole system?
A. Oracle 8i
B. MSSQL 2000
C. Exchange 2000
D. Microsoft Access
Answer:A

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NO.3 You need to add a number of Windows servers from another department to your Solaris NetBackup
master server. The system administrator for these systems has given you a Domain Administrator
account and permissionto install the client, but he will not be available to help you. He has not given you
access to the computer room where the systems are physically located.What is the supported method for
installing the client?
A. share the installation CD on the network, log into the systems via a Remote Terminal session, map the
CD andrun setup.exe
B. from the Administration client on the master server select all the remote clients in Host Properties,
right-click,and select Remote Client Install
C. log in to any Windows system on the domain as the domain administrator, run Launch.exe on the
installation CD and install to network clients
D. remote installation to Windows clients is not allowed from a UNIX Master; the system administrator will
haveto give you physical access to the clients.
Answer: C

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NO.4 In preparation for a master server upgrade, you want to launch a backup of the NetBackup catalog.
Which two methods accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. in the GUI, right-click your configured catalog backup policy, and select Manual Backup
B. in the GUI, right-click on Catalog and select Backup NetBackup Catalog
C. from the command line, run bpbackup with appropriate switches
D. from the command line, run bpbackupdb with appropriate switches
Answer: BD

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NO.5 You have been given a NetBackup 5.0 configuration to implement that contains the following operating
systemlevels.Which three are supported by NetBackup? (Choose three. )
A. Microsoft Windows 98
B. Sun Solaris 9
C. IBM OS390
D. HP HP/UX 11i
E. RedHat AS 3.0
Answer: BDE

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NO.6 Which three determine tape usage when preparing for a NetBackup deployment? (Choose three. )
A. tape type
B. backup window
C. number of fulls
D. number of file systems
E. number of incrementals
Answer:ACE

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NO.7 Corporate change control policies require that you have a back out plan before undertaking any
application upgrades. Which two steps could be included in your back out plan for a NetBackup upgrade?
(Choose two.)
A. uninstall the upgraded version of NetBackup and reinstall the older version
B. reinstall the OS and then reinstall the original version of NetBackup
C. use bprecover to recover the preupgrade catalogs from tape
D. use bprestore to recover the preupgrade catalogs from tape
Answer:AC

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NO.8 Which two methods can be used to install NetBackup license keys? (Choose two.)
A. when prompted during the NetBackup software installation
B. after the NetBackup software installation by executing get_license_key
C. after the NetBackup software installation by executing add_license_key
D. after the NetBackup software installation by clicking the Support tab on the NetBackup Administration
Console
Answer:AB

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NO.9 You are installing the NetBackup for SQL Agent. What must be current for communication to take
place between NetBackup and the SQL database?
A. ODBC
B. TCP/IP
C. Internet Explorer
D. Windows Service Pack
Answer:A

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NO.10 Which two statements are true about a media server upgrade installation from version 4.5 to version
5.0? (Choose two.)
A. All clients must be on 5.0 if their media server is on 5.0.
B. All master and media servers must be on NetBackup 5.0.
C. The media servers must be on 4.5 or 5.0 if the clients are on 4.5.
D. The master server can be upgraded to 5.0, and media servers can remain at 4.5.
Answer: CD

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NO.11 You are preparing for the installation of NetBackup on a Solaris system. This will be a Shared Storage
Optionenvironment that consists of one robotic library, two SCSI tape devices, one bridge, and one Fibre
Channelswitch.Which four files do you review to ensure a valid Target and LUN configuration? (Choose
four.)
A. st.conf
B. vm.conf
C. sg.conf
D. sg.links
E. /etc/system
F. devlink.tab
Answer: ACDF

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NO.12 Which command is used to install NetBackup on a UNIX client where rsh is not available?
A. bpcd_install
B. update_clients
C. bpclient_install
D. install_client_files
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which script is executed to uninstall a VERITAS Maintenance Pack from a UNIX master server?
A. Vrts_pack.uninstall
B. Vrts_patch.uninstall
C. Vrts_pack.install and select Uninstall
D. Vrts_patch.install and select Uninstall
Answer:A

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NO.14 A moderately used database server must be configured as a NetBackup client. The database
application is custom built and is not covered by a NetBackup database agent. The server is in production
around-the-clock.Backups must not interrupt production, and open files must be backed up. The DB data
exists on SAN attacheddisks, though available disk space is scarce. Which of the following backup
methods would best fit this scenario?
A. Copy-on-write snapshot
B. Mirror snapshot
C. VERITAS Snapshot Provider enabled backup
D. Block level incremental backups
Answer:A

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NO.15 Which two steps are required during the initial installation of a NetBackup master server? (Choose
two.)
A. create volume pools
B. define storage units
C. set up policy schedules
D. enter the server license
E. specify the NetBackup server type
Answer: DE

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NO.16 Which two steps are performed to set up a scratch pool? (Choose two.)
A. create a volume pool.
B. add a line in bp.conf: SCRATCH_POOL = SCRATCH
C. create a file called SCRATCH_POOL and type SCRATCH in it
D. mark the checkbox called "Scratch Pool" in the NetBackup Administration Console
Answer:AD

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NO.17 You have an MSSQL database that you need to add to your environment. Which three items do you
need toknow before backups can be configured? (Choose three. )
A. the version of MSSQL being used
B. the kind of authentication being used
C. the directories in which the database files are located
D. the backup retentions needed by the DBA
Answer: ABD

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NO.18 NetBackup has been installed in a SAN with a shared robot that contains ten drives. However, only four
drives appear as selectable and there are only four unique drive paths in the OS. Which two commands
are used to correct this problem? (Choose two.)
A. tpconfig
B. sg.build
C. tpautoconf
D. sg.install
E. shared_drive_notify
Answer: BD

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NO.19 Which three NetBackup processes are running after a successful master server installation? (Choose
three. )
A. bprd
B. bptm
C. bpjobd
D. bpdbm
E. bpdm
Answer: ACD

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NO.20 Which two statements are true about upgrading an existing NetBackup installation to NetBackup 5.0?
(Choose two.)
A. All master and media servers must be on the same revision level.
B. All clients must be on the same revision level as their media servers.
C. A media servers revision level may be one level higher than its clients revision levels.
D. The master server's revision level may be one level higher than the media servers revision level.
Answer: CD

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Code d'Examen: 250-365
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Data Protection Administration for Windows(NBU 6.5))
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NO.1 Consider the following: Your environment has one master server and six SAN media servers. The
systems use Shared Storage Option (SSO) to share ten tape drives on a single robot. Backups run at
night to various media servers and you want to duplicate all backups during the day. All duplications must
run on the master server to free media server resources. What would you do to allow the master server to
perform all duplications?
A.Clear Drive Duplication Enabled in the Device Manager for SAN media servers.
B.In the Vault policy, set Alternate Server Duplicate Disable for SAN media servers.
C.Set an offsite volume pool for master server access only.
D.Set an alternate read server in the Vault Management Properties tab.
Answer:D

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NO.2 Which two commands can be used to check and update the robot inventory? (Choose two.)
A.vmcheck
B.bpupdate
C.vmchange
D.vmupdate
E.vmcheckxxx
Answer:D E

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NO.3 When a restore is performed to client A, which process will go active when the restore starts?
A.tar
B.bpbkar
C.bpbkar32
D.tar32
Answer:D

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NO.4 Which processes are found on a NetBackup UNIX client? (Choose three.)
A.bpbkar
B.bpbrm
C.tar
D.bpcompatd
E.bpcd
Answer:A C E

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NO.5 Which factors affect the physical expiration of media? (Choose two.)
A.Date
B.Media full
C.Number of mounts
D.Media being moved to a new server
E.Changing the backup retention level
Answer:A C

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NO.6 What is updated during a NetBackup installation on Windows 2003?
A.C:\WINDOWS\System32\drivers\etc\services and C:\\WINDOWS\System32\drivers\etc\hosts
B.C:\WINDOWS\System32\drivers\etc\services and Windows Registry
C.C:\WINDOWS\System\drivers\etc\services and C:\\WINDOWS\System\drivers\etc\hosts
D.C:\WINDOWS\System\drivers\etc\services and Windows Control Panel
Answer:B

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NO.7 A restore must be performed. You have gone into the Backup Archive and Restore GUI and are trying
to view the valid images for clientA but the following error occurs: WARNING: Server does not contain any
valid images. Which options may be incorrectly configured? (Choose three.)
A.Source client for restores
B.Destination client for restores
C.Server to use for backups and restores
D.Media server for restore
E.Policy types for restore
Answer:A C E

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NO.8 Which NetBackup option uses snapshot technology to perform rapid snapshot-based restores?
A.Intelligent Disaster Recovery (IDR)
B.True image restore with move detection
C.Disk staging storage unit restore
D.Instant Recovery
Answer:D

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NO.9 Which actions can you take when performing a custom client installation on a Microsoft Windows 2003
system? (Choose two.)
A.You can deselect Veritas Snapshot Provider.
B.You can change the default port numbers.
C.You can only add up to five media servers.
D.You can set a custom location for the NetBackup catalog.
E.You can select to install the EMM database server.
Answer:A B

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NO.10 Which statements are true about upgrading an existing NetBackup installation to NetBackup 6.5?
(Choose two.)
A.All master and media servers must be on the same revision level.
B.All clients must be on the same revision level as their media servers.
C.A media server may be one major revision level lower than the master server.
D.A client may be one major revision level lower than the master server.
E.A master server may be one major revision level lower than a media server.
Answer:C D

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NO.11 Which guidelines should be followed when conducting a NetBackup media server installation? (Choose
three.)
A.You should remove any other vendor backup software.
B.At least one tape drive should be available for backup operations.
C.All NetBackup servers should recognize and be recognized by their client systems.
D.You should make certain that you have a server of a supported hardware type running a supported
version of an OS.
E.You should remove previous versions of NetBackup in a Windows environment.
Answer:A C D

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NO.12 In a NetBackup 6.5 environment, the image database resides _____.
A.within the EMM database
B.on the EMM server in binary format
C.on the master server in binary format
D.within the master server's Sybase database
Answer:C

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NO.13 Which backup method can restore individual files from a raw disk backup?
A.Copy on write snapshot
B.Mirror snapshot
C.FlashBackup
D.True image restore
Answer:C

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NO.14 Which report provides a list of media that were used in the last five hours?
A.Tape Lists
B.Tape Written
C.Tape Contents
D.Tape Summary
E.Status of Backups
Answer:B

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NO.15 Netbackup 6.5 is configured with a disk storage unit with staging enabled. Some of the images in the
disk storage unit have been successfully duplicated. The disk storage unit becomes full. What happens
next?
A.Duplicated images are purged until the disk storage unit can hold the next backup.
B.Duplicated images are purged until 98% below the disk capacity has been reached.
C.Duplicated images are purged until the high water mark has been reached.
D.Duplicated images are purged until the lower water mark has been reached.
Answer:D

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NO.16 When the master server is running NetBackup version 6.5, what is the minimum version of NetBackup
that can be running on a media server?
A.5.0 MP3
B.5.0 MP4
C.5.1
D.5.1 MP4
Answer:B

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NO.17 What is the name of the Netbackup service running after installation of a Windows client?
A.NetBackup Windows Service
B.NetBackup Client Service
C.NetBackup Remote Service
D.NetBack File System Service
Answer:B

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NO.18 NetBackup Operations Manager provides some useful utilities to help manage the NOM database.
Which command is used to launch the utility to perform NOM maintenance?
A.NOMadmincmd
B.NOMadmin
C.NOMcmd
D.NOMadm
Answer:B

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NO.19 You have just installed a NetBackup 6.5 master server and the EMM server is on a different machine.
In addition to bprd, bpjobd, and nbpem, which other processes would be running on the master server if
the installation was successful?
A.bpbrm, nbrb
B.bpdbm, nbemm
C.bpdbm, nbjm
D.bpbrm, nbjm
Answer:C

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NO.20 Which statement is true about the relationship between a master server and an EMM server?
A.An EMM server supports only one master server.
B.An EMM server supports more than one master server.
C.A master server may use more than one EMM server.
D.A master server may use an EMM server one major version behind.
Answer:B

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Code d'Examen: ST0-066
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 91 Q&As

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NO.1 Which type of component is included in the Software Catalog?
A. licenses
B. hotfixes
C. updates
D. uninstalls
Answer: C

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NO.2 When using a Custom install for a Deployment Solution 6.9 installation, which three components are
optional? (Select three.)
A. Deployment Database
B. PXE Server
C. DHCP Server
D. pre-boot operating systems
E. Deployment Web Console
Answer: BDE

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NO.3 Which agent must be distributed to deploy patches?
A. Software Delivery Update Agent
B. Client Task Agent
C. Patch Management Agent
D. Software Update Agent
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which statement is true about the Application Management feature of Inventory Solution?
A. It tracks and compares changes to application files and registry keys.
B. It monitors and denies the usage of applications on a network.
C. It gathers detailed information about application files.
D. It limits the usage of applications to the number of purchased licenses.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which Inventory Solution activity is accomplished without leveraging a task or policy?
A. detailed file inventory
B. stand-alone inventory
C. custom inventory
D. targeted software inventory
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the function of the applicability rule?
A. It determines conflicts with other software resources within the Software Catalog.
B. It determines if a software resource has all the required components for delivery.
C. It determines if a software resource is applicable to the Software Portal for self-delivery.
D. It determines if a software resource is applicable to a given computer.
Answer: D

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NO.7 An administrator is in the process of installing Deployment Solution 6.9 SP1.
Before exiting the installation program, but after Deployment Solution has been installed, which two
optional features can be installed? (Select two.)
A. Altiris Software Virtualization Solution
B. Deployment agents for Windows 2000 or later only
C. Enable Microsoft Sysprep support
D. pcAnywhere
E. Ghost Solution Suite
Answer: BC

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NO.8 Which two utilities or programs add additional pre-boot automation operating systems to the
Deployment Solution 6.9 installation? (Select two.)
A. PXE Configuration Utility
B. Boot Disk Creator
C. Ghost Explorer
D. PXE Component Installer
E. PXE Automation Installer
Answer: AB

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NO.9 Which two agents are required for Patch Management to successfully deploy client patches? (Select
two.)
A. Altiris Agent
B. Software Delivery Agent
C. Patch Management Update Agent
D. Software Update Agent
E. Patch Management Agent
Answer: AD

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NO.10 Which two operating systems are supported when installing Deployment Solution 6.9 SP1 server
components? (Select two.)
A. VMWare ESX Server
B. Solaris 10
C. Windows 2003 64-bit
D. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5
E. Windows 2008
Answer: CE

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NO.11 What is the result of performing a Custom install of Deployment Solution 6.9 when the server name is
left blank under 'Discover Deployment Server Using TCP/IP Multicast'?
A. The agent will continue discovery attempts until the correct configuration is added to the new
Deployment Server.
B. The agent will prompt that a Deployment Server cannot be located.
C. The agent will connect to the first Deployment Server that responds.
D. The agent will fail and need to be reconfigured.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which two products are included in Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0? (Select two.)
A. Ghost Solution Suite
B. Recovery Solution
C. Real-Time System Manager
D. Wise Package Studio
E. Deployment Solution
Answer: CE

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NO.13 Which Deployment Solution 6.9 Console feature lets the Deployment Solution Manager create jobs that
can automatically determine which set of tasks to perform on a computer?
A. Auto-detect
B. Conditions
C. Filters
D. DeployAnywhere
Answer: B

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NO.14 Where do you view the status of Software Updates while on a managed computer?
A. Add Remove Programs
B. Event Viewer
C. Software Management Agent
D. Altiris Agent
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which two third-party software programs must be installed prior to installing Deployment Solution 6.9?
(Select two.)
A. ActiveX
B. SQL
C. .NET Framework
D. Java
E. pre-boot automation operating systems
Answer: BC

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NO.16 Which statement is true about the Application Metering feature of Inventory Solution?
A. It tracks and compares changes to application files and registry keys.
B. It monitors and denies the usage of applications on the network.
C. It gathers detailed information about application files.
D. It limits the usage of applications to purchased licenses.
Answer: B

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NO.17 In the Symantec Management Console, which option allows an administrator to add trace level
messages to the Altiris Agent log file?
A. Enable Verbose Reporting of Status Events
B. Enable Trace Reporting of Status Events
C. Allow Failed Job Reporting for Status Events
D. Allow Agent Event Reporting for Status Events
Answer: A

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NO.18 After installing Patch Management Solution, what must be downloaded before updates can be
distributed?
A. Microsoft .Net Framework
B. Microsoft QChain
C. Microsoft Vulnerability Alerts
D. Microsoft Vulnerability Analysis Report
E. Microsoft Patch Management Import
Answer: BE

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NO.19 Which default Standard Inventory policy is enabled to run when Inventory Solution is first installed?
A. Collect Full Inventory
B. Collect Hardware Inventory
C. Collect Custom Inventory
D. Collect Basic Inventory
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which component of Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0 helps reduce the cost of imaging and
managing workstations and thin clients from a centralized location?
A. Endpoint Virtualization Solution
B. Ghost Solution Suite
C. Deployment Solution
D. Hardware Management Solution
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: ST0-10X
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Veritas Storage Foundation 5 for Unix (STS))
Questions et réponses: 198 Q&As

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NO.1 Which structure records are stored in the private region? (Each correct Answer presents part of the
solution. Select three.)
A.Disk group configuration
B.Disk and disk group ID
C.File system metadata
D.Disk group kernel log
E.Partition tables
Answer: ABD

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NO.2 Which command will you use to determine the operating mode of vxconfigd?
A.vxdctl enable
B.vxdctl mode
C.vxmode
D.ps -ef |grep vxconfig
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are responsible for administering the Storage Foundation for Sybase server. You want to remove a
mounted volume. What should you do first to ensure you are able to remove the mounted volume?
A.Remove the snapshot from the associated volume.
B.Recursively remove all plexes and subdisks.
C.Disassociate the snapshot from the associated volume.
D.Unmount the file system.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You place six physical disks under Volume Manager control to create 10GB of volume. You want to
use this volume as an archive directory. You need to create a volume that will store three copies of the
archived data. Which command will you use to create a volume with three plexes?
A.vxassist make archivevol 30g layout=stripe-mirror nmirror=3
B.vxassist make archivevol 30g layout=stripe-mirror ncolumn=3
C.vxassist make archivevol 10g layout=stripe-mirror nmirror=3
D.vxassist make archivevol 10g layout=stripe-mirror ncolumn=3
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the default limit to the number of subdisks that can be attached to a single plex?
A.1024
B.2048
C.4096
D.Unlimited
Answer: C

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NO.6 You are working with the Storage Foundation Intelligent Storage Provisioning feature, to create a new
mirrored volume. To prevent system failure, you want to ensure that you are able to perform a recovery of
mirrored volumes in minimum response time.
What should you do?
A.Create a Dirty Region Log.
B.Create a Data Change Map log.
C.Create a RAID-5 log.
D.Create a Snap object log.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which form of Disk Spanning allows you to map data in equally-sized chunks alternating across
multiple disks and is also known as interleaving?
A.Striping
B.Concatenation
C.Mirroring
D.Parity
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which two restrictions does relayout place on the administration of a volume while it is in progress?
(Select two.)
A.During a relayout, you cannot create a sparse plex.
B.During a relayout, you cannot change the number of mirrors in a volume.
C.During a relayout, you cannot change the number of subdisks in a volume.
D.During a relayout, you cannot create a snapshot of a volume.
E.During a relayout, you cannot create a backup of a volume.
Answer: AD

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NO.9 Which three are the database agents that are supported by Storage Foundation High Availability
version? (Select three.)
A.Informix
B.DB/2
C.Ingress
D.Oracle
E.Sybase
F.SQL
Answer: BDE

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NO.10 What is the minimum number of plexes required for true mirroring to provide redundancy of data?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
Answer: B

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NO.11 The vxprint command output for volume vol07 indicates that it has three plexes. How will you
determine which plexes are used for data?
A.Note the lengths. Data plexes are all the same length.
B.Note the STATE field. Non-data plexes will be indicated by the value: LOG.
C.Note the STATE field. Data plexes will be indicated by the value: MIRROR.
D.Note the RECORD TYPE field. Data plexes are designated with PL.
Answer: B

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NO.12 You need to create a volume for the HR department. You need to mount a file system with a high
demand for I/O throughput. You are aware that spanning the volume across multiple disks will increase
the I/O performance. Which risk should you be aware of when spanning the volume across multiple
disks?
A.Write throughput degradation
B.Single disk failure causes volume failure
C.Requirement for disk redundancy
D.Poor I/O performance
Answer: B

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NO.13 How many free partitions do you need to encapsulate a boot disk?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

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NO.14 You are monitoring a file system on a Solaris operating system using Veritas Volume Manager when
the following kernel message appears: WARNING: msgcnt x: mesg 069: V-2-69: memory usage specified
by the vxfs:vxfs_ninode and vxfs:vx_bc_bufhwm parameters exceeds available memory; the system may
hang under heavy load. You need to resolve this error. What should you do?
A.Increase the value of one or both parameters to 100% of physical memory or to 100% of kernel virtual
memory
B.Remove either the physical memory parameter or the kernel virtual memory parameter.
C.Leave the parameters at current levels and disregard the system message because it is a false
message.
D.Reduce the value of one or both parameters to less than 50% of physical memory or to 66% of kernel
virtual memory
Answer: D

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NO.15 You have large number of mirrored volumes, and the resynchronization process on mirrored volumes
will take lot of time. You want to address enable Dirty Region Logging (DRL) and find out the cause why it
takes a long time for resynchronization. You want to check the status of DRL logging to see if it is already
enabled.
How will you accomplish this task?
A.Use the vxprint command with the -F%drllogging $DCOVOL option
B.Use the vxprint command with the -F%drllogging $DRLVOL option
C.Use the vxprint command with the -F%dcologging $DCOVOL option
D.Use the vxprint command with the -F%drllogging $$DCONAME option
Answer: D

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NO.16 You are auditing a current storage environment that is not utilizing storage tiering. The information
gained from the audit is to be used in a new storage tiering design that will have 4 tiers (Tiers 1-4). You
need to determine the location for archive data which needs to be accessible but is not used heavily.
Where should you store this data?
A.Tier 1: High-end storage arrays with fast, reliable network connections.
B.Tier 2: High-end arrays, but performance is not a priority.
C.Tier 3: Mid-range to low-end storage arrays with fast, reliable network connections.
D.Tier 4: low-cost media, such as tape, with little consideration given to performance.
Answer: C

Symantec examen   ST0-10X examen   ST0-10X   ST0-10X

NO.17 You have installed Storage Foundation 5.0 Standard server with a number of hosts. You want to
centrally monitor and manage the hosts. You also want to generate reports for the hosts and the storage
resources that the hosts consume. What should you do?
A.Install the Veritas Quick I/O option on Storage Foundation 5.0 server.
B.Install Veritas Storage Foundation Management Server on Storage Foundation 5.0 server.
C.Install Veritas Storage Foundation Management Host on Storage Foundation 5.0 server.
D.Upgrade Storage Foundation 5.0 Standard to Storage Foundation 5.0 Enterprise.
Answer: B

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NO.18 You want to allow non-layered volume to change to layered stripe-mirror volume while remaining online.
What is the correct procedure to perform this conversion?
A.Convert the volume, stop the volume, remount the file system, and start the volume.
B.Unmount the file system, stop the volume, convert the volume, start the volume, and remount the file
system.
C.Resync the volume, convert the volume, and mirror the volume.
D.Stop the volume and then convert the volume.
Answer: C

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NO.19 The 'Administer' button in the Storage Foundation Management Server user interface for a host is
continually red, and the vxsvc32 agent is listed as DOWN.
How do you solve this problem?
A.Reconfigure the Storage Foundation management Server.
B.Reinstall the agent.
C.Restart Storage Foundation Management Server.
D.Change the types.ini configuration file on the Central Management Server.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which physical storage device is the equivalent to a virtual volume?
A.A disk
B.A partition
C.A block
D.A directory
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 250-270
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec NetBackup 7.0 for Unix)
Questions et réponses: 237 Q&As

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NO.1 A Symantec NetBackup 7.0 environment uses a multi-tiered architecture.
Which system functions as the top tier?
A. media server
B. enterprise client
C. client
D. master server
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which two items are required to use the Catalog Recovery Wizard? (Select two.)
A. BMR file
B. media used for the catalog backup
C. catalog backup policy
D. DR file
E. critical policy list
Answer: BD

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NO.3 A restore must be performed. The administrator is trying to view the valid images for a client, but the
following error occurs:
WARNING: Server does not contain any valid images.
Which two may be incorrectly configured? (Select two.)
A. schedule type for restores
B. destination client for restores
C. server to use for backups and restores
D. media server for backups and restores
E. policy types for restore
Answer: CE

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NO.4 Which two media status designations are excluded in the count against maximum number of partially
full media? (Select two.)
A. Frozen
B. Imported
C. Active
D. Available
E. Inactive
Answer: AB

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NO.5 Which two statements are true about the function of the Initiate Import utility in Symantec Netbackup
7.0? (Select two.)
A. Phase I creates a list of expired images.
B. Phase II lists and creates image files from tape or disk.
C. Phase I reads and creates image files in the image database.
D. Phase I requires each tape to be mounted if tape media is used.
E. Phase II imports the backups and creates fragments.
Answer: AD

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NO.6 A collection of all backup data from a client is assembled into a single stream and written to tape or
disk.
What is this called?
A. file metadata
B. backup policy
C. catalog .f file
D. backup image
Answer: D

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NO.7 An administrator has created three BasicDisk storage units within the NetBackup Administration
Console (STU-A, STU-B, and STU-C). The administrator needs to create a backup policy that evenly
rotates use of each of these storage units during backup.
How can the policies or storage units be set up to accomplish this?
A. set up each of the policies to use "Any Available" storage unit
B. set up a storage unit group for these STUs and select "Failover" option for storage unit selection
C. set up a storage unit group for these STUs and select "Least recently selected storage unit" option
D. set up a storage unit group for these STUs and select "Choose storage units based on order specified
above" option
Answer: C

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NO.8 In a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 environment, where does the image database reside?
A. within the EMM database
B. on the media server
C. on the master server
D. within the master server's Sybase database
Answer: C

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NO.9 An administrator is remotely logged into a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 server via the terminal window
and needs to configure robots and drives.
Which command should be used to complete the configuration?
A. vmconf
B. tpreq
C. nbdevconfig
D. tpconfig
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which two types of information are displayed in the Tape Summary report? (Select two.)
A. the number of tapes that are suspended
B. the number of tapes that are offsite
C. the number of tapes that are using compression
D. the number of tapes that are active
E. the number of tapes each client is using
Answer: AD

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NO.11 A company has just expanded the Symantec NetBackup 7.0 environment by adding an additional
media server.
What is the fastest way to update several hundred Symantec NetBackup clients with the new media
server information?
A. run the update_all_clients script
B. run the add_media_server_on_clients script
C. specify the new media server in the Backup, Archive, and Restore interface
D. specify the new media server in the client properties
Answer: B

Symantec   250-270   250-270   250-270   250-270

NO.12 An administrator successfully creates a disk pool for Symantec NetBackup 7.0, then attempts to
create a new storage unit using the bpstuadd command. In the bpstuadd command, the storage unit
name is specified as diskpool1_storageunit-#01. An error message is returned indicating the storage unit
name is invalid.
How should the storage unit name be modified to fix the problem?
A. remove the "-" from the name
B. remove all the numbers from the name
C. remove the "#" from the name
D. shorten the name to fewer than twenty characters
Answer: C

Symantec   250-270   250-270 examen   250-270   250-270   250-270

NO.13 Which two databases are used by Symantec NetBackup 7.0? (Select two.)
A. Media
B. Image
C. Volume
D. EMM
E. Device
Answer: BD

Symantec   certification 250-270   250-270   certification 250-270   250-270

NO.14 An organization has Symantec NetBackup 7.0 client machines with a large number of files distributed
across multiple file systems that are being backed up to a library with high-speed tape drives.
Which two steps should the administrator take to ensure the greatest number of backup streams are
active concurrently? (Select two.)
A. select the "Enable multiple data streams" policy attribute and edit the "Maximum jobs per client" master
server host property
B. create a "Media Server Load Balancing" type storage unit group to enable additional backup streams to
become active simultaneously
C. enable the client-side deduplication feature so that only unique data is sent from the client to the media
server
D. select the Enable multiplexing attribute within the storage unit and the policy schedule
E. configure the "Max drives this master" attribute to the number of tape drives that are available within
the library
Answer: AD

Symantec   250-270   250-270   250-270   250-270   certification 250-270

NO.15 Which Symantec NetBackup 7.0 volume pool is created by default?
A. Data
B. Scratch
C. None
D. Catalog
Answer: C

Symantec   250-270   250-270   250-270   250-270

NO.16 A tape library had the robot firmware upgraded and now the robot is reading the barcodes with
additional characters.
What can be set so that Symantec NetBackup 7.0 uses the same characters as before the firmware
upgrade occurred?
A. Media ID generation
B. Media ID display
C. media type mapping
D. barcode rules
Answer: A

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NO.17 How long will a failed restore job remain in an Incomplete state prior to being moved to a Done state?
A. one day
B. three days
C. seven days
D. until the administrator cancels the restore job
Answer: C

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NO.18 The configuration parameters MIN_GB_SIZE_PER_DUPLICATION_JOB and
IMAGE_EXTENDED_RETRY_PERIOD_IN_HOURS are part of the configuration for which feature?
A. Catalog Replication
B. FlashBackup
C. Storage Lifecycle Policy
D. NetBackup Vault
Answer: C

Symantec   250-270   250-270   250-270   250-270 examen   certification 250-270

NO.19 Where are exclude list configurations stored?
A. media server
B. master server
C. client
D. Enterprise Media Manager (EMM) server
Answer: C

Symantec examen   250-270   250-270 examen   250-270

NO.20 Catalog configuration can be configured to email which file to aid in catalog recovery?
A. BMR file
B. master server config file
C. support script output
D. DR file
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: ST0-093
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Data Loss Prevention 10.5 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the sequence of message processing for Network Monitor?
A. Packet Capture -> File Reader -> Detection -> Incident Writer
B. Monitor Controller -> Detection -> File Reader -> Incident Writer
C. File Reader -> IncidentPersister -> Manager -> Notifier
D. Request Processor -> Packet Capture -> File Reader -> Detection
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which two actions are associated with FlexResponse? (Select two.)
A. manually quarantine files
B. automatically quarantine files on file shares
C. modify a response within a policy
D. automatically quarantine files on endpoints
E. apply digital rights to content
Answer: A,E

Symantec   ST0-093   ST0-093

NO.3 Which product lets an incident responder see who has access to confidential files on a public file
share?
A. Network Protect
B. Endpoint Discover
C. Endpoint Prevent
D. Network Discover
Answer: D

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NO.4 What does Network Monitor use to identify network traffic going to a nonstandard port?
A. string matching
B. port range
C. either UDP or TCP
D. protocol signature
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-093 examen   ST0-093   ST0-093

NO.5 What must a policy manager do when working with Exact Data Matching (EDM) indexes?
A. re-index large data sources on a daily or weekly basis
B. index the original data source on the detection server
C. deploy the index only to specific detection servers
D. create a new data profile if data source schema changes
Answer: D

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NO.6 The user interface (UI) will be used to upgrade to Symantec Data Loss Prevention 10.5. A Data Loss
Prevention administrator will be logging in to the Enforce Server from a desktop to perform the upgrade.
The Vontu\Protect\config\Manager.properties file is set to default settings. Which port must be open to
connect to the upgrader application?
A. 8080
B. 8090
C. 8100
D. 8300
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-093   ST0-093 examen

NO.7 What must a Data Loss Prevention administrator recycle for Network Monitor filter configuration
changes to take effect?
A. VontuMonitorController
B. PacketCapture
C. FileReader
D. Network Monitor
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-093   ST0-093   ST0-093

NO.8 Which detection server can block file transfer protocol (FTP) requests?
A. Network Monitor Server
B. FTP Prevent Server
C. Web Prevent Server
D. Endpoint Prevent Server
Answer: C

Symantec examen   ST0-093   ST0-093

NO.9 Where does an incident responder find the exact matches that triggered an incident?
A. Incident Dashboard
B. Incident Snapshot
C. Incident List
D. Incident Summary Report
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which feature is a key benefit of on-screen notification?
A. uses on-screen notification in different languages
B. educates the user about the violation that has occurred
C. stops the movement of data that violates policies
D. notifies the user that the Endpoint Agent is active
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which component has an obfuscated (hidden) log?
A. Endpoint Agent
B. Enforce Server
C. Network Monitor
D. Network Discover
Answer: D

Symantec examen   certification ST0-093   ST0-093

NO.12 Which server encrypts the message when using a Modify SMTP Message response rule?
A. Encryption Gateway
B. SMTP Prevent Server
C. MTA Server
D. Enforce Server
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which information is recommended to be included in an Exact Data Matching (EDM) data source?
A. date fields
B. numeric fields with fewer than five digits
C. column names in the first row
D. country, state, or province names
Answer: C

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NO.14 To which file system folder does PacketCapture write reconstructed SMTP messages?
A. drop
B. drop_pcap
C. drop_discover
D. drop_smtp
Answer: B

Symantec   certification ST0-093   ST0-093   ST0-093

NO.15 What is a function of the Enforce Server?
A. policy creation
B. detection of incidents
C. inspection of network communication
D. identification of confidential data in repositories
Answer: A

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NO.16 What is the primary function of Endpoint Prevent?
A. encrypts confidential data being sent over the network or copied to removable media
B. finds confidential data and quarantines the data to a central repository
C. disables end-user devices that are unauthorized by a company's data security policies
D. stops confidential data from being sent over the network or copied to removable media
Answer: A

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NO.17 What are two available options when accessing the Configure Server page to configure protocol filters?
(Select two.)
A. HTTPS
B. FTP
C. SMTP
D. ICMP
E. UDP
Answer: B,C

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NO.18 Which products run on the same detection server?
A. Network Protect and Network Discover
B. Endpoint Discover and Network Discover
C. Network Monitor and Network Prevent
D. Network Discover and Network Monitor
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-093   ST0-093   ST0-093   ST0-093 examen

NO.19 What should be used to exclude email going to any email address in the partner.com domain?
A. IP filter
B. L7 filter
C. Content filter
D. Sender/User Matches pattern
Answer: B

Symantec   certification ST0-093   ST0-093 examen

NO.20 Which two protocols are available by default and recognized by Network Monitor by their individual
signatures? (Select two.)
A. FTP
B. HTTPS
C. IM: AIM
D. SNMP
E. TFTP
Answer: A,C

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