Pass4Test offre de VMware VCP550 VCAC510 VCP510PSE matériaux d'essai

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Code d'Examen: VCP550
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on vSphere 5 Exam)
Questions et réponses: 267 Q&As

Code d'Examen: VCAC510
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Associate - Cloud Exam (VCA-Cloud))
Questions et réponses: 97 Q&As

Code d'Examen: VCP510PSE
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional 5 - Data Center Virtualization PSE)
Questions et réponses: 318 Q&As

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NO.1 Your company has just undertaken a new research project where network security is critical.
As you are configuring your private cloud to support this new project, which vCloud Networking and
Security feature will you be setting up to provide the required security?
A. NAT
B. Private VLAN
C. Endpoint
D. Firewall
Answer: D

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Reference:http://blogs.vmware.com/vsphere/ 2013 / 06 /vcloud-networking-and-security-5-1-appfirew
all-best-practices.html

NO.2 You received an email from your cloud team's senior technical architect asking you to
implement snapshots in your cloud where it makes sense to do so. You ask the architect to clarify
where in your cloud it would make the most sense to use snapshots. Which of the following is the
most likely answer they would give you?
A. Catalogs: To back out any unauthorized changes
B. Production web servers: To provide a backup of each day's changes
C. Development VMs: To roll back code updates
D. vApps: To roll back to their original deployment state
Answer: C

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Reference:http://searchvmware.techtarget.com/definition/VMware-snapshot

NO.3 You need a solution for your burst utilization without paying for unused capacity during
non-peak hours. Which vCloud product will solve this problem?
A. vCloud APIs
B. vCloud Automation Center
C. vCloud Networking and Security
D. vCloud Connector
Answer: D

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Reference:http://cloud.idglabs.net/?p=1860

NO.4 You have Site Recovery Manager (SRM) in place to protect critical vCloud servers in the event
of a disaster. Over lunch, a manager asks you why SRM is configured to protect only the vCloud
servers and not the actual department workload VMs. What do you tell her?
A. The workload VMs are on fenced networks, which can't be failed over.
B. SRM can't fail over the workload VMs, but it is a simple matter to restart them once the vCloud
servers have failed over.
C. Workload VM failover is implied when you failover the vCloud infrastructure servers.
D. vCloud workloads can be migrated with vCloud Director once it has failed over and so are not
required to be protected with SRM.
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www.yellow-bricks.com/ 2012 / 02 /13 /vcloud-director-infrastructure-resiliencysolutio
n/

NO.5 You have been tasked with setting up various automation features in your private cloud. You
know that vCloud Automation Center is going to be the perfect tool for the job. What are the
available purchase options for vCloud Automation Center?
A. It is available with vSphere or vCloud Enterprise.
B. It is available on a stand-alone basis or with vCloud Enterprise.
C. It is only available on a stand-alone basis.
D. It is only available with vCloud Enterprise.
Answer: B

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Reference:http://www.vmware.com/in/products/vcloud-automation-center/pricing.html

NO.6 You have been asked to install and verify network security for the multiple tenants in your
public cloud. Which of the following will you primarily work with to secure your tenants?
A. vCloud Networking and Security
B. vSphere Distributed Switch
C. vShield Zones
D. vCloud Security Server
Answer: A

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Reference:https://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/products/vcns/vmware-vcloud-networking-andsecur
ity-overview.pdf(page 2)z

NO.7 As part of setting up your company's disaster recovery plan, the technical project manager
has identified the need to synchronize storage used by your cloud VMs to the remote disaster
recovery site. Which of the following will you use to setup storage synchronization?
A. vCloud Connector
B. vSphere Replication
C. Datastore Clusters
D. vCloud Automation Center
Answer: B

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Reference:http://www.vmware.com/business-continuity/disaster-recovery

NO.8 You are asked to explain to your company's technical staff the vCloud feature used to logically
group users and resources so that each department can have its own virtual datacenter. Which of
the following are you describing to your staff?
A. Organizations
B. Clusters
C. Folders
D. Pods
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/VMware-Architecting-vCloud-WP .pdf

250-513 ST0-250 dernières questions d'examen certification Symantec et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: 250-513
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Data Loss Prevention 12)
Questions et réponses: 300 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ST0-250
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5 Technical Assessment)
Questions et réponses: 126 Q&As

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NO.1 Which directory data source function must be enabled to help prevent a directory harvest
attack?
A. Active Directory connector
B. Dynamic Data Sourcing
C. LDAP authentication
D. Recipient validation
Answer: D

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NO.2 What should an administrator do before performing a software update of Symantec
Messaging Gateway 10.5?
A. Store backup on local server
B. Store backup on a remote location using FTP
C. Encrypt local backup
D. Purge all backups from the appliance
Answer: C

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NO.3 How does Symantec DLP communicate with Symantec Messaging Gateway (SMG) to indicate
what type of incident (if any) is related to a given message?
A. Symantec DLP uses the ICAP protocol to indicate if a message is clean,or if it violated any defined
policies.
B. Symantec DLP will add information into the message that can be interpreted by SMG and then
send it to SMG via SMTP .
C. Symantec DLP will quarantine messages that violate established policies,blocking it from SMG.
D. Symantec DLP will use TLS to send a notification message to the SMG server for any content
violations.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5 will be deployed to receive mail directly from the Internet.
In this situation, which option should be selected within the Inbound Mail Filtering - Accepted Hosts
step of the site setup wizard?
A. Enable MX lookup
B. Define a list of domains
C. Specify IP addresses/domains
D. Select all IP addresses
Answer: D

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NO.5 An administrator needs to determine whether a sending MTA is being throttled by Symantec
Messaging Gateway 10.5. Where is this information located?
A. Reputation Summary report
B. IP reputation lookup table
C. SMTP server logs
D. message audit logs
Answer: B

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6. After a configurable period of time, a suspect virus is released from the Suspect Virus
Quarantine. What happens to it next?
A. An alert is sent to the email administrator.
B. The attachment is removed and the original message is delivered to the recipient.
C. It is rescanned.
D. It is moved to quarantine.
Answer: C

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7. What is the current name of the LDAP synchronization technology used within the Symantec
Messaging Gateway?
A. Dynamic Data Cache
B. Directory Data Service
C. Active Directory
D. Domain Controller Interface (DCInterface)
Answer: B

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8. If recipient validation is configured properly, which SMTP response level is given to messages
that fail recipient validation queries at connect time?
A. 3xx - Service unavailable
B. 4xx - Temporary delivery failure
C. 5xx - Permanent delivery failure
D. 6xx - Rejected validation failure
Answer: C

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9. How should an administrator stop inbound mail using the command line interface (CLI)?
A. use mta-control
B. use mta-stop
C. use mail-control
D. use mail-stop
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-250   ST0-250
10. Which additional Email Reports Data collection must be enabled to track Top Probe Accounts
via reports?
A. Spam and Unwanted Mail
B. Submissions
C. Sender IP connections
D. Invalid Recipients
Answer: D

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11. Which two statistics can the administrator view regarding the custom anti-spam rulesets?
(Select two.)
A. the "top-submitters" of missed spam or false positive detections
B. the "top submitters" of messages that are not valid and did not generate a custom rule
C. how many emails have been submitted for custom antispam rules
D. the effectiveness of the custom antispam rulesets compared to Symantec's rulesets
E. the top senders of messages detected by custon antispam rulesets
Answer: A,C

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12. What two actions can allowed end-users do to submit samples to Symantec and have custom
anti-spam rules created? (Select two.)
A. submit a sample to Symantec using the Email Submission Client
B. flag messages in their web-based SMG quarantine page as being spam and submitting the results
C. forward spam samples to abuse@symantec.com with a subject of "MISSED SPAM"
D. move the message into the included "Junk E-mail" folder available in Outlook
E. submit a sample to Symantec using the Email Submission Client available for Lotus Domino
Answer: A,B

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13. A company uses multiple control centers. What must be done to ensure legitimate NDRs are
recognized by Bounce Attack Prevention across all scanners?
A. configure the same seed value on each control center
B. configure the same administrator email address across both control centers
C. configure the same seed value on each scanner
D. configure both control centers with the same internal email hosts
Answer: A

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14. An organization would like to participate in the Symantec Probe Network without having to
manually create decoy email accounts. The organization wants to make sure that the addresses that
participate in the Symantec Probe Network are currently receiving email. Which directory data
source function should be enabled to help in this situation?
A. recipient validation
B. address resolution
C. SMTP authentication
D. LDAP routing
Answer: A

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15. What is required before attempting installation of the Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5
appliance?
A. console access to the appliance
B. DVD-ROM drive listed on hardware compatibility list
C. valid license file
D. machine account created in Active Directory
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 1Z1-466
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Project Lifecycle Management Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 98 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1z0-482
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Data Integrator 11g Certified Implementation Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 71 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1z0-590
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle VM 3 for x86 Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 82 Q&As

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NO.1 Identify three objects from which scenarios can be generated.
A. Interface
B. Variable
C. Package
D. Knowledge modules
E. Trail
F. Extract
Answer: A,B,C

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Reference:http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E23943_01 /integrate.1111 /e12643 /scenarios.htm#BACDFAH
D(see topic 13.2)

NO.2 When working with delimited flat files, is it possible to enforce primary key on a flat file using
a CKM?
A. No, it is not possible to enforce constraints on some technologies such as flat files and JMS
queues.
B. No, it is not possible to enforce constraints on any technology.
C. Yes, it is possible also to forward-engineer it to the flat file definition.
D. Yes, but you have to save it as a fixed file.
Answer: A

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NO.3 You want to add a new CDC subscriber in ODI after you have started the Journal process, what
steps do you need to go through in order to use this new subscriber?
A. Drop Journal, remove existing subscribers, add a new subscriber, start Journal, and edit the
default Journalizing filter in your Interfaces
B. Drop Journal,add anew subscriber, start Journal, and remove the default Journalizing filter in your
Interfaces
C. Drop Journal, add a new subscriber, start Journal, and edit the default Journalizing filter in your
Interfaces
D. Add anew subscriber and edit the default Journalizing filter in your Interfaces
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which two ODI knowledge modules are included in the Application Adapter for Hadoop?
A. IKM Oracle Incremental Update
B. IKM Hive Transform
C. IKM SQL to File Append
D. IKM FiletoHive
Answer: B,D

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Reference:http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E27101_01 /doc.10/e27365 /odi.htm

NO.5 Identify one correct statement regarding Exception steps in Load Plans.
A. Exception steps cannot be defined in a Load Plan.
B. Exception steps can only be defined for Parallel Steps in a Load Plan
C. Exception steps can only be defined for Serial Steps in a Load Plan.
D. Exception steps can be defined for most Step types in a Load Plan.
Answer: D

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Reference:https://s3.amazonaws.com/rmc_docs/oug_ireland_2012_rittman_odi.pdf(page 88)

NO.6 You are loading a file into a database but the file name is unknown at design time and will
have to be passed dynamically to a Package at run time; how do you achieve this?
A. Create a variable, use it in Topology at the File dataserver-level, and add it to a package as a
Declare Variable step
B. Create a variable, use it in Topology at the File dataserver-level, and add it to a package as a Set
Variable step
C. Create a variable, use it as the Resource Name of the File datastore, and add it to a package as a
Declare Variable step
D. Create a variable, use it as the Resource Name of the File datastore, and add it to a package as a
Set Variable step
Answer: D

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NO.7 In an ODI interface, to declare a lookup, is there a dedicated graphical object?
A. No, in ODI you can declare a lookup only using a join definition.
B. No, in ODI you can declare a lookup only using an ODI procedure.
C. Yes, there is a specific object, you click it and a wizard helps the developer to set the lookup.
D. Yes, there is a specific object and you need to prepare a configuration file to use it.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Select the three correct options for Token Checking in the EDQ parser.
A. Checking against a list of values.
B. Checking for duplicates.
C. Checking against a list of patterns.
D. Checking for typing errors.
E. Checking against a list of regular expressions.
Answer: A,B,E

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98-373 dernières questions d'examen certification Microsoft et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: 98-373
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Mobile Development Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 235 Q&As

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NO.1 Which component should you use to provide quick access to common tasks in a Windows
Phone application?
A. ListBox
B. Application Bar
C. Panorama
D. pivot
Answer: B

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NO.2 How many points of capacitive touch does the Windows Phone 7.5 screen support?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.3 How should you handle long-running tasks in an application?
A. By displaying a progress bar and running the tasks in the background, and then ensuring that the
users are able to cancel the operations
B. By caching the result to application runtime when the tasks complete for the first time
C. By prompting the users before starting the tasks and allowing them to stop the tasks from
occurring
D. By stopping all other operations and running only the tasks
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which location class contains properties for latitude and longitude values?
A. CivicAddress
B. AddressChooserTask
C. GeoCoordinate
D. Rect
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which Windows Phone theme color is used to single out items of interest in Windows Phone
applications?
A. Foreground
B. Accent
C. Contrast
D. Background
Answer: B

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NO.6 You create an application that uses features from both XNA and Microsoft Silverlight.
Which file in Microsoft Visual Basic .NET is specifically created by the Windows Phone Silverlight
and XNA application template for your XNA code?
A. App.xaml.vb
B. MainPage.xaml.vb
C. GamePage.xaml.vb
D. AppServiceProvider.vb
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which three applications are available on a Windows Phone 7 device, but not on the device
emulator user interface? (Choose three.)
A. xbox Live
B. Windows Internet Explorer
C. Windows Phone Marketplace
D. Bing Maps
E. Pictures Hub
Answer: A,C,D

Microsoft   98-373   98-373 examen   98-373 examen
Explanation:
Windows Internet Explorer and Pictures Hub work in the device emulator.

NO.8 Which three navigation buttons are mandatory on Windows Phone devices? (Choose three.)
A. Home
B. Next
C. Start
D. Back
E. Search
Answer: A,D,E

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Code d'Examen: 074-335
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Network Readiness and Assessment for Lync)
Questions et réponses: 95 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 70-488
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Core Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 074-697
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (OEM Preinstallation)
Questions et réponses: 98 Q&As

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NO.1 You receive an error when you deploy the app.
You need to resolve the error.
What should you do?
A. Deploy the app to http://contoso-public.sharepoint.com.
B. Enable side-loading of apps in the Visual Studio project properties.
C. Deploy the app to https://contoso-my.sharepoint.com.
D. Deploy the app to https://contoso.sharepoint.com/tasks.
Answer: A

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NO.2 You need to configure the credential store for the app.
Which properties should you configure? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose
all that apply.)
A. Pin
B. Windows Password
C. Windows User Name
D. Password
E. User Name
Answer: D,E

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Explanation:
From scenario:
*A client asks you to create a basic task tracking app for SharePoint. The app will be hosted remotely
*Remote users will authenticate to the app by using a username and password.

NO.3 You need to set the appropriate permissions for the franchise employees' customer list and
customer subsite access.
What should you do?
A. Add franchise employees to the Members group in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection.
Break inheritance at the franchisee subsite level. Create a custom role definition at the franchisee
subsite level. Add franchise employees to the custom role.
B. Create a custom role definition in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection with Limited Access
to the Customers list. Add franchise employees to the custom role at the CorporateSiteCollection
site collection. Break inheritance at the subsite level. Add franchise owners to the Owners group at
the subsite level.
C. Create a custom role definition in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection with Limited Access
to the Customer list. Add franchise employees to the custom role. Allow full inheritance of the role
definition and permissions at the site level.
D. Add franchise employees to the Visitors group in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection.
Break inheritance at the franchisee subsite level. Create a custom role definition at the subsite level
with Full Control permissions. Add franchise employees to the custom role.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You need to create a custom sign-in page to allow the users of the FranchiseMonitor app to
authenticate against SharePoint and Margie's Travel API.
What should you do?
A. Create an app for SharePoint. Set the trust level to Sandbox solution. Create an application page
that writes a cookie named FedAuth. Deploy the app and configure the Sign In Page URL in Central
Administration Authentication Provider for the zone.
B. Create an app for SharePoint. Set the trust level to Farm solution. Create an application page that
writes a cookie named FedAuth. Deploy the app and configure the Sign In Page URL in Central
Administration Authentication Provider for the zone.
C. Create an app for SharePoint. Set the trust level to Farm solution. Create an application page that
writes a cookie named ASPXAUTH. Deploy the app and configure the Sign In Page URL in Central
Administration Authentication Provider for the zone.
D. Create an app for SharePoint. Set the trust level to Sandbox solution. Create an application page
that writes a cookie named ASPXAUTH. Deploy the app and configure the Sign In Page URL in
Central Administration Authentication Provider for the zone.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A franchisee deletes several sites from the franchise's site collection. The franchisee site
collection administrator must recover the sites.
You need to instruct the franchisee site collection administrator on how to access the page to
recover the sites.
What should the site collection administrator do to get to the appropriate page?
A. Select General Settings for the Web Application in Central Administration and change the second
stage Recycle Bin settings to 100 percent.
B. Select General Settings for the Web Application in Central Administration and change the first
stage Recycle Bin settings to 0 days.
C. Select the Recycle Bin on the Site Settings page. Choose the appropriate sites and select Restore
Selection.
D. Select the Recycle Bin in the Quick Launch page. Choose the appropriate sites and select Restore
Selection.
Answer: A

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NO.6 You need to ensure that the CloudManager app can write route progress check-ins to the
courier's microfeed.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Ensure that SP .RequestExecutor.js can be accessed in a browser window with no errors.
B. Ensure that the CloudManager app has the Manage permission request scoped to the URL for the
franchisee's My Site.
C. Ensure that the MySite host is provisioned for each franchisee.
D. Ensure that all cookies are made available between the My Site and the CloudManager app
domain.
E. Ensure that the CloudManager app has the Write permission request scoped to the URL for the
franchisee's My Site.
F. Ensure that SP .UserProfiles.js can be accessed in a browser window with no errors.
Answer: A,B,D,E

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NO.7 You need to meet the requirements for data storage for the CourierMobile app and the
CloudMananger app.
Which technologies should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all
that apply.)
A. Windows Azure SQL Database
B. SharePoint content database
C. Secure Store
D. SQL Server Express LocalDB
E. SharePoint list
Answer: A,D

Microsoft   certification 70-488   70-488   certification 70-488
Explanation:
A: SQL Azure in the cloud.
D: LocalDB is a lightweight version of Express that has the same programmability features, but it
runs in user mode and has a fast, zero-configuration installation and a short list of prerequisites.
From scenario:
*CourierMobile App
The CourierMobile app must be able to capture more than 30 million data points of location data
daily as they occur and upload the location data to the cloud when connected to the Internet.
*Cloudmanager App
The CloudManager app must elastically scale to capture courier location data as the number of
bicycle couriers increases or decreases. / The CloudManager app must process bicycle courier
location data from a data store capable of storing more than 30 million items.

NO.8 You need to create rules in the CourierMobile app based on the ItemType that arrives.
For which ItemTypes should you test? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all
that apply.)
A. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Tent
B. IPM.Note
C. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Request
D. IPM.Appointment
E. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Cancelled
F. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Pos
G. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Neg
Answer: D,E

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Les meilleures Microsoft 74-344 MB5-700 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 74-344
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Managing Programs and Projects with Project Server 2013)
Questions et réponses: 97 Q&As

Code d'Examen: MB5-700
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Microsoft Dynamics C5 2012 Application Consultant)
Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

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NO.1 You are a project manager in an organization that uses Project Server 2013.
All project managers have permission to edit all projects.
You edit a project in Project Web App (PWA), make changes, publish the project, and close your
browser.
A project manager calls you to report they are unable to open your project for edit in PWA. You
need to resolve this issue. What should you do?
A. Advise the project manager to open the project in Project Professional 2013.
B. Open Project Professional 2013 and use the Clean Up Cache button.
C. Open the Project Center in PWA and use the Check in My Projects button.
D. Open the Project Center in PWA and use the Project Permissions button.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Your work in a multinational corporation which uses Project Server 2013 to plan and control
projects in different business units. Each business unit has its own portfolio of projects but can
participate in strategic projects. The Project Management Office (PMO) has configured
Enterprise Project Types (EPTs) to create new products, launch marketing campaigns, and deploy
new lines of business tools to comply with the governance processes.
One of your roles is to identify new products. A local team in Singapore produces an effective idea
for a new product.
You need to create a business case for the next portfolio analysis. You need to gather general
information about the new product by efficiently collaborating with the local team.
What should you do?
A. Start a Project with the New Product EPT, which will trigger a workflow and allow you to display
and collect descriptive data and exchange information in the Project site.
B. Exchange information by sharing documents through SkyDrive Pro 2013.
C. Create a Team Site for the Singapore business unit for gathering information and assigning tasks.
Save the Team Site as a template for use within the New Product EPT.
D. Start a new enterprise project with the Microsoft SharePoint task list EPT, and grant immediate
access to the team so they can share information, assign tasks, and collaborate.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Your organization has implemented Project Server 2013 to plan and control enterprise projects.
Your organization plans to perform a Portfolio Analysis for the first time on the Selection of Projects
to be done the next year. Business drivers, as well as a pair wise comparison of those business
drivers to set the business priorities, is the chosen method.
Your organization has provided you with a total of 35 business drivers, 30 of which are related in
some way.
You need to return with a valid set of drivers and prioritization to perform the analysis.
What should you do?
A. Perform a pairwise analysis on the drivers to identify relative priorities with key stakeholders.
B. Specify a priority value for each driver in order to complete the pairwise analysis.
C. Reduce the number of drivers to fewer than 12 and perform the prioritization with the key
stakeholders.
D. Assign priorities to each driver and normalize to 100 percent.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Your organization is performing a Portfolio Analysis in Project Server 2013.
You want to create a consolidated Portfolio Analysis optimization based on Cost and Resource data,
which will be part of the project information in Project Server 2013.
You plan to provide different simulations to your organization by using those parameters and
returning the best prioritization.
This organization has two different unit directors, who have the final decision on the consolidated
Portfolio Analysis results.
You need to provide the ability for your unit directors to modify the final portfolio selection.
Which element should you use?
A. Resource Requirements
B. Project/Proposal Priority
C. Field Cost Constraint
D. Project Original Start
E. Field Force In/Out
Answer: E

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NO.5 You are a manager for a project your team has been working on for many weeks. Your project
is created as a Microsoft SharePoint task list project and is available in Project Center.
You have established the work breakdown structure (WBS), predecessors, assignments, and all of
the functionalities you can get from a SharePoint task list. However, the project has grown in detail,
and managing 200 activities has become difficult in Project Web App (PWA).
You need to ensure resources continue to report their progress in the same way.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
Choose two.)
A. Activate the Enterprise Project Features for the SharePoint site task list and edit the tasks in PWA
project details.
B. Edit the project in Project Professional 2013 from the Project Center by clicking the icon of the
SharePoint task list project in the Indicators column.
C. Activate the Enterprise Project Features for the SharePoint site task list and edit the tasks in
Project Professional 2013.
D. Edit the project in Project Professional 2013 by synching the SharePoint task list so you can take
advantage of the extended features.
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 Your organization uses Project Online for project portfolio selection. The business drivers and
priorities are set, as are the main constraints to identify the efficient frontier.
The company has been collecting business cases for new proposals in which many projects may
solve the same business need. For example, the selection for a Customer Relationship Management
system has six different proposals, whereas only one is necessary to fulfill the business need.
You need to guarantee that the analysis will produce the most viable proposal in terms of cost and
resources and that no repetitive efforts exist in the portfolio selection.
What should you do?
A. Create a mutual exclusion dependency among all these projects.
B. Create a mutual inclusion dependency among all these projects.
C. Exclude these projects from the Portfolio Analysis to prevent a deviation from the main goal.
D. Exclude the related projects from the portfolio after the cost analysis with the Force in/out option.
Answer: A

certification Microsoft   74-344   74-344

NO.7 You are a program manager for a company that uses Project Server 2013 and Project
Professional 2013. You manage the implementation of a data warehouse.
You have set up your program master project with subprojects for each implementation area.
You need to make edits to the dependencies between projects.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
Choose two.)
A. View the subproject in Project Web App (PWA) and choose Edit. Then add your dependencies in
the predecessor's/successor's column.
B. Open the program-level project from Project Web App (PWA) by using Project Professional 2013.
Highlight the tasks you wish to link for a dependency with the control key. Then click the link button
on the tool bar.
C. Open the program-level project and the subproject from the Project Web App (PWA) and save
them to your local machine. Then add your predecessor's/successor's column in either file.
D. Open each of the required subprojects from the Project Web App (PWA) by using Project
Professional 2013 and create the link in the predecessor's/successor's column to the other projects
using the <>\Project Name\Task ID.
E. View the program-level project in Project Web App (PWA) and choose Edit. Then add your
dependencies in the predecessor's/ successor's column using the <>\Project Name\Task ID.
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 You are a program manager for an organization that uses Project Server 2013.
You are responsible for implementing a data warehouse that compiles relational data from many
business areas. Your project managers need to be able to manage the implementation for a
business area as separate projects, while still recognizing the dependencies at a program level.
You need to maintain ownership and authority of key program dates at the program level.
What should you do?
A. Create one project file for all project managers that includes the program-level tasks and each
sub-project's tasks. Require each area project manager to share the file, and add their dependencies
within their own tasks.
B. Create and publish a master project file with general durations for each business area sub-project,
and have the area project manager reconcile the dates in their own project manually each week.
C. Have the project managers create, save, and publish sub-projects for each area. Then insert them
into a program-level project, define dependencies, and save and publish the program-level project
to the server.
D. Create a master project and insert your projects, but never publish the file on the server.
Answer: C

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Les meilleures SAP C-HANATEC131 C-HANAIMP131 C-TSCM42-65 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: C-HANATEC131
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Technology Associate (Edition 2013) - SAP HANA)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C-HANAIMP131
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate (Edition 2013) - SAP HANA)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C-TSCM42-65
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Production - Planning & Manufacturing with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP5)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Where can you define the valid receivers for production order costs?
A. In the valuation variant
B. In the production scheduling profile
C. In the settlement profile
D. In the costing variant
Answer: C

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NO.2 What features related to process orders can be used to fulfill Good Manufacturing Practices
(GMP) requirements? (Choose three)
A. Availability check
B. Digital signature
C. Resource selection
D. Electronic batch record
E. Approved master recipes
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.3 When analyzing the SAP ECC order report for a planned order for a finished product, you
discover that one of the assemblies will not be available in time for the scheduled final assembly
because of automatic forward scheduling.
Which planning procedure do you use to create a feasible production plan from a requirements
planning perspective?
A. Interactive single-item planning for the delayed assembly
B. Multi-level single-item planning with the "simulation mode" option
C. Total planning online
D. Multi-level single-item planning with the "display material list" option
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is a feature of the simu-lation mode for material requirements planning in SAP ECC?
A. It posts planning results to the database automatically.
B. It propagates exception messages from a component to the finished product.
C. It calculates the delay time which may occur in planning.
D. It triggers multilevel bottom-up scheduling.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What sequence do you follow in master data maintenance to define the production of a
material?
A. Create BOM -> Create work centers -> Create routing -> Carry out component assignment in BOM
or routing
B. Create BOM -> Create work centers -> Create routing -> Carry out component assignment in work
center
C. Create routing -> Create work centers -> Create BOM -> Carry out component assignment in BOM
or routing
D. Create work centers -> Create routing -> Create BOM -> Carry out component assignment in work
center
Answer: A

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NO.6 What does SAP ERP mean?
A. SAP ERP is a planning system in which extended planning processes can be mapped.
B. SAP ERP is a system hardware that includes modules for purchasing, sales and distribution,
materials management, production and so on.
C. SAP ERP is a technological platform, on the basis of which customer-specific extensions can be
imported.
D. SAP ERP is an application that an enterprise can use to manage its business processes efficiently.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which functions can be triggered before releasing a production order? (Choose three)
A. Confirmation
B. Selection of a routing
C. Scheduling
D. Stock determination
E. Selection of a BOM
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.8 For which of the following objects can you enter a confirmation? (Choose two)
A. Production order
B. Production order operation
C. Trigger Point
D. Work Center
Answer: A,B

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Code d'Examen: C_TPLM30_65
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Enterprise Asset Management (Maintenance & Repair) with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP5)
Questions et réponses: 95 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C-TPLM30-65
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Enterprise Asset Management (Maintenance & Repair) with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP5)
Questions et réponses: 95 Q&As

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NO.1 A maintenance plan has a completion requirement. The plan contains five maintenance items
that produce five notifications.
Which system status must each notification have before the maintenance call is completed and the
next maintenance call can be generated?
A. REL (Released)
B. ATCO (All Tasks Completed)
C. TECO (Technically Completed)
D. NOCO (Notification Completed)
Answer: D

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NO.2 A user has planned an operation with labor costs and material costs; however, the material
cost element is not assigned to a value category.
Where do the material costs appear in the value categories for the order?
A. In the overhead value category
B. In a new, automatically created value category
C. In the unassigned value category
D. In the internal activity value category
Answer: C

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NO.3 A maintenance technician replaces a defective counter with a new counter.
Before the users can create a standard measuring document for the new counter, what step(s) must
they perform?
A. Create a new technical object to represent the new measuring point.
B. Create a special measuring document and set the Counter Replacement indicator.
C. Dismantle the old measuring point and create a new measuring point.
D. Create a new measuring point and change the measuring point from which the measurement
reading was transferred.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following always produces up-to-the-minute costing information for
maintenance orders?
A. A standard analysis from the Plant Maintenance Information System (PMIS)
B. A standard query in SAP Net Weaver Business Warehouse
C. A maintenance order list
D. A shift report based on shift notes
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following are prerequisites for business completion? (Choose two)
A. The order must have actual costs.
B. The order must be fully settled.
C. The balance of the order must be zero.
D. The order must have planned costs.
Answer: B,C

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6. What information does the value category provide in the maintenance order?
A. The costs details for individual technical objects
B. The costs by work center
C. The material costs by valuation category
D. A summary of costs for multiple cost elements
Answer: D

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7. Which of the following Customizing settings is required to assign a notification to a
maintenance order operation?
A. Assignment of operations to all object list entries active
B. Assignment of order type to notification type
C. Maintain indicator for notification data on order header
D. Create default value profiles for general order data
Answer: A

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8. Which of the following is a function of deadline monitoring (transaction IP30)?
A. Generate a Logistics Information System (LIS) report for scheduled maintenance items within a
specific period.
B. Convert maintenance notifications into maintenance orders within a specific period.
C. Convert maintenance calls into call objects within a specific period.
D. Generate a Logistics Information System (LIS) report for all overdue maintenance calls.
Answer: C

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9. Which task list can have both external and internal number assignment for the task list group
number?
A. Bill of material task list
B. Equipment task list
C. General task list
D. Functional location task list
Answer: C

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10. When the user creates a maintenance plan for a call object (order), which value in the
planning data determines the order type?
A. Priority
B. Maintenance activity type
C. Maintenance planner group
D. Main work center
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: OG0-023
Nom d'Examen: The Open Group (ArchiMate 2 Combined Part 1 and 2 Examination)
Questions et réponses: 105 Q&As

Code d'Examen: OG0-021
Nom d'Examen: The Open Group (ArchiMate 2 Part 1 Examination)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Consider the following diagram:
What does the diagram express about the Underwriting Application?
A. It has three distinct components
B. It processes three different types of data objects
C. It performs three different functions
D. It groups together three components that are not a part of the Underwriting Application
Answer: C

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NO.2 Consider the following diagram representing part of a key PRO-FIT capability: self-service
online price quotes for its auto insurance customers:
Which of the following answers best interprets this diagram?
A. The Self-Service Quote Solution is an application service that uses four separate application
components
B. The Self-Service Quote Solution is an application collaboration that includes four application
components that work together
C. The Self-Service Quote Solution is an application component that accesses four different types of
data objects
D. The Self-Service Quote Solution is an application component that collaborates with four service
modules
Answer: B

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NO.3 Consider the following symbol, which represents information about a transformation project
at ArchiSurance. Note that premium in this context means the total revenue ArchiSurance receives
from legal services insurance premium payments:
Which of the following statements correctly expresses the meaning of the symbol?
A. ArchiSurance has attributed a 15% increase in premium to the transformation project in 2012
B. The increased premium revenue created by completion of the transformation project will
motivate significant change in the ArchiSurance Legally Yours division
C. ArchiSurance has set a goal to increase legal services premium by 15% in 2012, as compared to
the previous year
D. ArchiSurance has a requirement to increase legal services premium by 15% in 2012
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which application layer concept is defined as a passive element?
A. Application component
B. Application function r
C. Data object
D. Business object
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following statements about ArchiMate viewpoint classification is correct?
A. There are three purpose dimensions and three abstraction levels
B. There are two purpose dimensions and three abstraction layers
C. There are four purpose dimensions and two abstraction levels
D. There are three purpose dimensions and four abstraction layers
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following best describes why ArchiMate supports specialization of concepts?
A. It is the only way to model enterprise architecures that are useable and easy to communicate to
the stakeholders
B. It is needed to represent the same concept on different viewpoints
C. It provides extra flexibility, enabling users to customize the language to their own preferences
and needs, while maintaining the underlying precise definition of the concepts
D. It is allowed because without this mechanism it would be impossible to add attributes to
ArchiMate concepts and relations
Answer: C

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NO.7 The following diagram shows a typical group of stakeholders: Which ArchiMate viewpoint
abstraction level would support these stakeholders for the purpose of change management?
A. Coherence
B. Designing
C. Details
D. Overview
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following phases of the TOGAF ADM correspond most closely to the ArchiMate
Motivation Extension?
A. Preliminary, Architecture Vision, Requirements Management
B. Opportunities and Solutions, Migration Planning, Implementation Governance
C. Architecture Change Management
D. Business Architecture, Information Systems Architectures, Technology Architecture
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-409
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Linux Fundamentals (Oracle PartnerNetwork))
Questions et réponses: 230 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1z0-100
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Linux 5 and 6 System Administration)
Questions et réponses: 108 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1z0-474
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Taleo Recruiting Cloud Service 2012 Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 76 Q&As

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NO.1 You have logged in as normal user bob with the default login shell. An attempt by bob to
change the default shell to /bin/sh fails with an error. What could be the possible reason?
A. The SUID bit is not set on chsh by default.
B. The /bin/sh entry is not listed in /etc/shells file.
C. bob does not have the permissions to change the shell by default.
D. bob does not have read permissions on the/etc/shells file by default.
Answer: B

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6. Which statements are true about the File Extensions? (Choose all that apply.)
A. File extensions are just part of the file name.
B. File extensions are cared by all applications.
C. File content depends upon the file extensions.
D. File extensions do not always say what the file is.
E. File extensions have no special meaning to the kernel.
Answer: A,D,E

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7. The /data directory that belongs to the apps group is set with 1770 permissions. The details of
the apps group members are given below.
# groups smith bob scott
smith : smith apps
scott : scott apps
bob : bob apps
What are the effective permissions for each of these users on other users' files and directories in the
/data directory?
A. Read, write, and execute permissions on files and directories.
B. Read permission on files and read and execute permissions on directories.
C. Read and write permissions on files and read, write, and execute permissions on directories.
D. Read permissions only because full permission is set to the owner of the files and directories only.
Answer: B

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8. As root you have changed the default login shell to one of the shells listed in /etc/shells file.
Which file entry is modified as a result of this?
A. /etc/shadow
B. /etc/shells
C. /etc/passwd
D. /etc/default/useradd
Answer: C

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9. Identify the feature that is common to both the GNOME and KDE desktops.
A. Both are themeable.
B. built on the Qt library
C. built on the GTK library
D. Both are created by FSF.
E. Both use metacity as the default window manager.
Answer: A

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10. Examine the following output:
[root@station1]ps -f UID PID PPID C STIME TTY TIME CMD root 3944 3820 1 03:32 tty1 01:57 -bash
root 3984 3944 0 03:32 tty1 01:57 ksh root 3985 3984 0 03:32 tty1 01:57 ps -f
Which columns would you analyze to find the most recently invoked shell?
A. Analyze only the PID.
B. Analyze only the UID.
C. Analyze only the PPID.
D. Analyze both the UID and PID.
E. Analyze both the PID and PPID.
F. Analyze both the UID and PPID.
Answer: E

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NO.2 You log in as normal user bob and execute the mount command without any arguments. What
would be the output of this command?
A. mount will prompt for the device to mount.
B. All the currently mounted file systems will be displayed.
C. All the file systems defined only in /etc/fstab will be displayed.
D. mount will report an error which says the mount command is not found.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Identify the correct statements about the tr command? (Choose all that apply.)
A. It works from STDOUT.
B. It helps in Regex pattern matching.
C. It can be used to delete a set of characters.
D. It can be used to merge multiple blank lines into one.
E. It can be used to translate one set of characters into another.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.4 The user smith wants to navigate to the /usr/share/doc directory. His current working
directory is /home/smith. Which of these commands would help smith to navigate to the
/usr/share/doc directory? (Choose all that apply.)
A. cd /usr/share/doc
B. cd ../usr/share/doc
C. cd / ; usr/share/doc
D. cd ../../usr/share/doc
E. cd / ; cd usr/share/doc
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.5 Which commands, without any options, could help a user to read the entire contents of a text
file in his or her home directory? (Choose two.)
A. xxd
B. less
C. grep
D. head
E. more
F. strings
Answer: B,E

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Code d'Examen: MB2-702
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 Deployment)
Questions et réponses: 90 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 70-347
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Enabling Office 365 Services)
Questions et réponses: 78 Q&As

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NO.1 You manage client computing devices for a company. Office 365 was recently deployed for all
employees in the sales department.company policy requires the installation of Office 365 ProPlus on
all new client computing devices for sales department employees.
The company recently purchased Surface Pro 2 devices for all sales department employees. You are
testing a new Office deployment for a specific user on a Surface Pro 2. You are unable to activate
Office on the Surface Pro 2. An error message states that the install limit has been reached.
You need to activate Office 365 ProPlus on the Surface Pro 2 for the user.
What should you do?
A. Sign in to the Office 365 portal as the user and deactivate unused Office 365 ProPlus licenses.
B. Sign in to the Office 365 admin center as an Office 365 administrator. Remove and then re-add
the user's Office 365 ProPlus license.
C. Install a licensed copy of Office Professional Plus 2013 that is covered under a volume licensing
agreement.
D. Sign in to the Office 365 admin center as an Office 365 administrator and deactivate unused
Office 365 ProPlus licenses.
Answer: A

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NO.2 You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
You need to configure Microsoft Lync Online to disable alerts for voicemail and instant messages to
Windows Phones.
What should you do?
A. Use the Set-CsHostedVoiceMailPolicy Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
B. Use the Set-CsPushNotificationConfiguration Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
C. In the Lync admin center, select the Display presence information only to a user's contacts option.
D. Use the Set-CsUser Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Your company has an Office 365 Enterprise El subscription.
The company wants to implement an enterprise document collaboration and social networking
platform that allows users to upload documents from their computers and conduct informal polls.
You need to implement a solution that meets the requirements.
Which solution should you implement?
A. Microsoft SharePoint document libraries
B. Microsoft SharePoint surveys
C. Microsoft Yammer
D. Microsoft SharePoint newsfeeds
E. Microsoft SkyDrive Pro
Answer: C

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NO.4 A company is upgrading its 3,000 client computers to Office 365 ProPlus. The company uses
the Telemetry Dashboard to identify document compatibility issues. The Telemetry Agent is
deployed to all client computers. The telemetry environment is described in the following table.
You need to ensure that telemetry data is collected for more than 20 client computers at a time.
What should you do?
A. Migrate the telemetry database to a computer that runs SQL Server 2008.
B. Use the Registry Editor to trigger the data collection.
C. Use Group Policy to set the MaxConnectionsPerServer setting to 100.
D. Migrate the Telemetry Processor to a computer that runs Windows Server 2012.
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
Many employees work in remote locations with intermittent Internet connectivity. Employees must
be able to access and reply to email messages, and access calendars, even when their devices are
not connected to the Internet.
You need to ensure that employees can access their Microsoft Exchange content offline.
What should you do?
A. Configure the Directory Synchronization tool for offline access.
B. Deploy and configure the AppFabric Caching service.
C. Configure the Microsoft SkyDrive Pro Windows Sync client for offline access.
D. Configure Exchange ActiveSync devices.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Your company uses Microsoft SharePoint Online for collaboration. A document library is
configured as shown in the following table.
You need to enable the coauthoring of documents in the library.
What should you do?
A. Change the Who should see draft items in this document library? setting to Any user who can
read items.
B. Change the Create a version each time you edit a file in this document library? setting to No
Versioning.
C. Change the Require documents to be checked out before they can be edited? setting to No.
D. Change the Require content approval for submitted items? setting to No.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Your company uses Microsoft Exchange Online. Employees frequently need to change their
primary email addresses.
The messaging operations team has requested a script to simplify the process of changing email
addresses.
The script must perform the following actions:
- Obtain employee information from a. csv file that has a header line of
UserPrincipalName,CurrentPrimaryAddress,NewPrimaryAddress.
- Change employees' primary email addresses to the values in the
NewPrimaryAddress column.
- Retain employees' current email addresses as secondary addresses.
You create the following Windows PowerShell script to read the . csv file. Line numbers are included
for reference only.
You need to complete the script to meet the requirements.
Which Windows PowerShell command should you insert at line 06?
A. Set-Mailbox -Identity $UserPrincipalName -WindowsEmailAddress $NewPrimary
B. Set-Mailbox -Identity $UserPrincipalName -PrimarySmtpAddress $NewPrimary
C. Set-Mailbox -Identity $UserPrincipalName -ExternalEmailAddress $NewPrimary
D. Set-MailUser -Identity $UserPrincipalName -EmailAddresses@{add = "SMTP:" + "$NewPrimary";
remove="SMTP:" + "$OldPrimary"}
Answer: D

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NO.8 You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company uses Office 365 ProPlus
and has multiple Microsoft SharePointOnline sites.
The company recently started a project that requires employees to collaborate with external users
on the development of a set of documents that are stored in a team site.
You need to ensure that external users can access and edit the documents without affecting the
security of other content.
What should you do?
A. Create a new SharePoint team site and share it by using the Share function and adding the
external users to the Visitors group.
B. Create a new SharePoint team site and share it by using the Share function and adding the
external users to the Contributors group.
C. Share the existing SharePoint team site by using the Share function and adding the external users
to the Visitors group.
D. Share the existing SharePoint team site by using the Share function and adding the
external users to the Contributors group.
Answer: B

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