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Code d'Examen: PW0-270

Nom d'Examen: CWAP (Certified Wireless Analysis Professional)

Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 Using the exhibit as a reference, answer the following.
STA1 sent a data frame to Mesh AP2 destined for a local file server on the same subnet with MAC
address 00:11:22:33:44:55. Mesh AP2's mesh forwarding algorithm determined that the frame should be
forwarded through Mesh AP1.
In the frame sent from Mesh AP2 to Mesh AP1, what is true of the contents of the MAC header? (Choose
3)
A. SA = Mesh AP2's MAC Address
B. RA = Mesh AP1's MAC Address
C. TA = STA1's MAC Address
D. DA = 00:11:22:33:44:55
E. To DS = 0
F. From DS = 1
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.2 What HT PPDU format is shown in the exhibit?
A. HT-mixed format
B. HT-greenfield format
C. Non-HT format
D. Non-HT duplicate format
E. Dual Training Field format
F. ERP-OFDM format
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which statements are true regarding Beacons from an AP in an HT infrastructure BSS that is configured
with multiple WLAN profiles? (Choose 3)
A. Beacons can be disabled for security purposes.
B. The BSSID and Source Address are always the same.
C. The Destination Address is always FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF.
D. The Receiver address and the BSSID are always the same.
E. When the SSID is "hidden," the ESS subfield of the Capability Information field distinguishes one BSS
from another.
F. All Beacons generated by APs contain a TIM information element.
G. The Beacon interval must be the same for all WLANs (SSIDs) supported by a single AP
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.4 What IEEE 802.11 technology is illustrated by the exhibit?
A. Fragmentation
B. TCP Fragment Bursting
C. A-MSDU
D. A-MPDU E. U-APSD
F. Jumbo frames
Answer: C

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NO.5 In the frame decode shown, there are two sets of supported data rates. 1, 2, 5.5, and 11 Mbps are all
shown as "basic" data rates, and 6, 9, 12, 18, 24, 36, 48, and 54 Mbps are shown simply as supported
data rates.
What is true of "basic" data rates in this context?
A. The AP requires all client stations to support Basic rates in order to associate to its BSS.
B. The highest data rate set to Basic is automatically used to send broadcast traffic such as Beacon
frames.
C. Basic rates are optional data rates for the BSS, often used for assuring connectivity for legacy stations.
D. Basic rates are only used for multicast traffic, and do not affect unicast traffic.
E. Basic rates are defined in an AP's service set to specify mandatory data rates for all retry frames.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which statement is true regarding the Association Identifier (AID) used in IEEE 802.11 WLANs?
A. The AID has a maximum value of 2048, and is used to uniquely identify a wireless client station
associated with an access point.
B. The AID has a maximum value of 2007, and resides in the duration/ID field of a PS-Poll frame.
C. The client station is assigned an AID value in the 802.11 authentication response frame.
D. The AID field is present only in Beacons frames.
E. The AID is used by the access point in EDCA mode to reduce duplicate transmissions when sending
multicasts.
Answer: B

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NO.7 When a 5 GHz HT station in a 40 MHz BSS desires to protect a 40 MHz transmission from an OFDM
station using an RTS/CTS or CTS-to-Self exchange, what frame format is used for the RTS and/or CTS
frames?
A. HT-mixed format
B. HT-greenfield format
C. Dual-CTS
D. Non-HT Duplicate
E. Phased Coexistence PPDU
Answer: D

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NO.8 According to 802.11-2007, in what frame type(s) might you find the PMK Count and PMKID List fields?
A. All frames that include the RSN IE
B. Only (Re)Association Request frames
C. Beacon and Probe Response frames
D. EAPoL 4-Way Handshake frames
E. Authentication and Association Request and Response frames
Answer: B

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NO.9 In which 802.11 frames is the SSID present, provided the SSID is not removed through proprietary
software configuration by an administrator? (Choose 3)
A. Association Request
B. Reassociation Request
C. Probe Response
D. Disassociation
E. Authentication
F. Association Response
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.10 What is the purpose of a PHY preamble.?
A. It provides the receiver(s) with an opportunity for RF channel synchronization prior to the start of the
PLCP header.
B. It communicates important information about the PSDU's length, rate, and upper layer protocol-related
parameters.
C. It provides a cyclic redundancy check (CRC) for the receiving station to validate that the PLCP header
was received correctly.
D. It indicates to the PHY the modulation that shall be used for transmission (and reception) of the PSDU.
Answer: A

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L'avènement de la certification LSI pratique d'examen L50-503 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: L50-503

Nom d'Examen: LSI (LSI SVM5 Sales Consultant)

Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 A warehousing company is in the process of a changeover to a new supplier thus switching out their
inventory. During this changeover, the business requires the highest performance of the inventory
database application. This database currently resides on Tier 3 storage. The customer's Tier 1 storage
has 15000 RPM Fibre Channel drives while the Tier 3 storage has 7200 RPM SATA drives. What is the
SVM solution for this customer?
A. Use the multi-pathing architecture to zone the host dedicated to the Tier 1 storage and zone a separate
host dedicated to Tier 3.
B. Non-disruptively promote the volumes from the Tier 3 storage to the Tier 1 storage before the
changeover and demote the volumes back to Tier 3 when the changeover is complete.
C. Define data policies which will automatically migrate data to Tier 1 and Tier 3 storage levels providing
instant tiering.
D. Non-disruptively place all of the 15000 RPM drives in one array and all of the 7200 RPM drives in
another array thus automatically tiering your storage to different workloads.
Answer: B

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NO.2 How can SVM's centralized management provide better performance?
A. by allocating capacity across RAID arrays
B. by striping volumes across RAID arrays
C. by mirroring volumes across RAID arrays
D. by provisioning additional servers
Answer: B

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NO.3 What are two functions of the Data Path Module? (Choose two.)
A. DPM processes control frames.
B. DPM processes data frames.
C. DPM manages metadata.
D. DPM translates addresses.
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Your customer calls to discuss their DPMs and their consolidation project's impact on their DPM port
count. They are moving from a pair of dual controllers with four ports to one dual controller with eight ports.
Which statement accurately describes what they should do.?
A. They will need four more ports on each DPM.
B. They will need four fewer ports on each DPM.
C. They will need eight more ports on each DPM.
D. They will not need to change their DPM port count.
Answer: D

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NO.5 When consolidating onto a new storage platform, what actually moves the data?
A. the Data Path Module
B. the SVM server
C. the storage array
D. the SAN switch
Answer: B

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NO.6 An SVM prospect just called requesting that you virtualize their data center using VMware. What are
three ways that SVM's volume management capabilities will help this customer? (Choose three.)
A. SVM allows users to quickly and efficiently create and manage volumes for each of the virtual
machines.
B. SVM eliminates the need to deal with ongoing LUN management at the array level.
C. SVM will prevent the virtual servers from running out of space.
D. SVM allows storage be provisioned and reallocated after use with the same simplicity as the virtual
servers.
E. SVM will size the volumes to the actual data size.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.7 Which statement describes tiered storage?
A. An infrastructure designed to lower the overall cost of storage by placing volumes on "fit for purpose"
storage based on defined cost, availability, and performance requirements.
B. An infrastructure designed to place data on the storage devices that have the lowest price per
megabyte ratio.
C. An infrastructure designed to place data on different storage devices to ensure a heterogeneous
model.
D. An infrastructure designed to place data on different storage devices to ensure a homogeneous model.
Answer: A

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NO.8 When moving existing LUNs into a pool, which feature would you use?
A. SVM multiCopy
B. SVM multiMirror
C. SVM multiView
D. SVM disk import
Answer: D

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NO.9 A long time customer and SVM prospect just called requesting your help to virtualize their data center
using VMware. What are three ways that SVM's snapshot capabilities will help this customer? (Choose
three.)
A. SVM snapshots will eliminate tape from the customer's environment.
B. SVM makes it possible to keep the point-in-time snapshots online for extended periods of time and to
recover from them quickly.
C. SVM snapshots can eliminate the need to install backup agents on every virtual machine.
D. SVM snapshots will protect from physical failures.
E. SVM snapshots can be used to reduce time required to stage, test, and debug software applications.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.10 What are three benefits of using thin provisioning? (Choose three.)
A. reclaiming trapped capacity
B. creating empty volumes to reserve capacity
C. expanding volume capacity automatically
D. making multiple copies of volumes for backups
E. saving money on overall storage costs
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.11 Why would a customer use thin provisioning to manage their storage?
A. to provision more physical capacity to a LUN than is actually needed
B. to cluster LUNs of similar type into one management entity
C. to add more volumes to a management domain than are supported by hardware
D. to create large virtual volumes based on a small amount of physical capacity
Answer: D

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NO.12 Your SVM customer calls with questions about performance tuning in their VMware environment. One
of their storage arrays is not running fast enough to support the application for several days each month.
What would you recommend?
A. Buy a faster storage array and move the data with multiView.
B. Use multiCopy to copy the data to a different storage tier, stop the application and remount the data to
the copy.
C. Back up the data off a snapshot and restore it to a faster array.
D. Use multiMigrate to move the application's data to a higher performing storage tier for the busy days.
Answer: D

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NO.13 What are two ways that SVM supports consolidation? (Choose two.)
A. SVM can reserve space for future use on a LUN-by-LUN basis.
B. SVM can build RAID structures for enhanced data protection.
C. SVM can migrate data from multiple storage arrays onto a single storage array.
D. SVM can make snapshots of volume groups that are spread across multiple storage arrays.
Answer: C,D

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NO.14 Your client is concerned about disaster recovery. You are explaining that SVM can recover from both
physical and logical failures positioning the fact that the majority of failures are actually logical. What
would be a good example for your client?
A. file deletion
B. hardware failure
C. loss of a site due to a disaster
D. split-path architecture
Answer: A

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NO.15 A long time customer just called requesting your help justifying SVM as they virtualize their data center
using VMware. What are three reasons SVM's storage services would benefit this customer? (Choose
three.)
A. Rapid application recovery is easier with SVM's snapshot capabilities.
B. SVM will make provisioning easy and fast.
C. Disaster recovery will be less expensive than using traditional methods.
D. SVM will eliminate the need for tape.
E. SVM will automatically size storage to fit the data.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.16 What are two recommended ways of organizing pools? (Choose two.)
A. by host
B. by RAID level
C. by DPM
D. by users
Answer: B,D

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NO.17 Your customer calls to discuss their SVM servers and their consolidation project's impact on their SVM
server port count. They are moving from a pair of dual controllers with four ports to one dual controller with
eight ports. Which statement accurately describes what the impact will be?
A. They will need four more ports on each SVM server.
B. They will need four fewer ports on each SVM server.
C. They cannot change the SVM server's port count.
D. They will need eight more ports on each SVM server.
Answer: C

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NO.18 What is an advantage of using thin provisioning over traditional capacity provisioning?
A. A thin volume serves up only the data blocks called for by a read or write request.
B. A thin volume automatically provisions additional capacity for large I/O read requests.
C. A thin volume holds only the changes (writes) made by hosts to the thin volume.
D. A thin volume migrates data from an existing LUN into a new pool.
Answer: C

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NO.19 What are three functions of the SVM server? (Choose three.)
A. The SVM server processes control frames.
B. The SVM server processes data frames.
C. The SVM server manages metadata.
D. The SVM server translates addresses.
E. The SVM server moves data.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.20 In an IT center with several different vendors storage arrays, virtualized networked storage with SVM
provides migration of data to less expensive tiers of storage by doing what?
A. Pooling the storage into a server virtualization model whereby different servers can emulate hosts and
tier the data.
B. Pooling the storage into a networked virtualization model zoning the virtualized storage utilizing
third-party tools.
C. Pooling the storage across different vendors?storage arrays into a centralized pool and then assigning
different applications and tiers to different pools.
D. Pooling the storage across different vendors?storage arrays into assigned volume groups and use
virtual servers to tier the data.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 1D0-525

Nom d'Examen: CIW (CIW v5 E-Commeroe Designer)

Questions et réponses: 144 Q&As

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NO.1 You are considering payment methods for a business-to-business (B2B) e-commerce site. Which
payment method would be most appropriate for your needs?
A. Cash on delivery (c.o.d.)
B. Purchase order and post-purchase billing
C. Purchase request and pre-purchase billing
D. Advance payment using check or money order
Answer: B

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NO.2 Online credit-card transactions require a payment gateway. Payment gateway software can be
installed on your Web server or hosted online. After you install a payment gateway, you must:
A. develop an effective marketing strategy.
B. install the e-commerce database system.
C. select and establish a compatible merchant account.
D. configure the gateway to work with your e-commerce server.
Answer: D

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NO.3 An online instant storefront can build community by:
A. granting quantity discounts.
B. creating an e-mail newsletter.
C. using banner exchange programs.
D. providing a public listing of customer e-mail addresses.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following pieces of information will best help you determine the number of transactions
your database server can accommodate?
A. Maximum uptime requirements
B. Minimum installation requirements
C. The number of database tables required
D. The number of concurrent user connections
Answer: D

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NO.5 Under Secure Electronic Transactions (SET), which three parties involved in a transaction are required
to use the SET protocol?
A. The merchant, the bank, the customer
B. The wholesaler, the merchant, the bank
C. The broker, the merchant, the customer
D. The customer, the credit card company, the bank
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following site creation models would be most appropriate for a site needing customer
relationship management (CRM) and personalization?
A. Online instant storefront
B. Mid-level online instant storefront
C. Mid-level offline instant storefront
D. High-level offline instant storefront
Answer: D

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NO.7 You will be hiring someone to localize your e-commerce site in order to reach a specific audience.
Which of the following is most essential for the person you hire to effectively complete the job?
A. The ability to communicate clearly with the team that created the site
B. An understanding of the scripting language and database type used on the site
C. An understanding of the language and culture of the audience you want to reach
D. An understanding of the importance of the just-in-time (JIT) process to the company
Answer: C

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NO.8 Before you can conduct usability testing, you should:
A. identify your potential customers.
B. identify browser compatibility issues.
C. publish your site to a production server.
D. identify the most-traveled path of your site.
Answer: A

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NO.9 The main purpose of monitoring e-commerce Web server resources and performance (including
bandwidth, uptime, downtime and network usage) is to ensure:
A. site availability.
B. visitor satisfaction.
C. cost-effectiveness.
D. increased profitability.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Nain is a front-desk receptionist at a large corporation. After a recent payday for the employees, Nain
received a phone call from someone claiming to be an employee who was out-of-state on an assignment.
This person asked Nain whether his check had been deposited, and to verify that the check was written to
a specific account name and bank routing number. This occurrence may be a type of attack known as a:
A. phishing attack.
B. pharming attack.
C. denial-of-service attack.
D. social-engineering attack.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following describes a Sharable Content Object Reference Model (SCORM) manifest?
A. An XHTML document that is SCORM-conformant
B. An XML document that describes a Sharable Content Object (SCO)
C. A relational database that contains Sharable Content Object (SCO) information
D. A style sheet that gives structure to the page containing a Sharable Content Object (SCO)
Answer: B

CIW   certification 1D0-525   certification 1D0-525   1D0-525

NO.12 Paul conducts business in a country that levies a value-added tax (VAT) on all goods purchased within
its borders. What must Paul configure in order to add a VAT automatically to the total cost of a purchase?
A. The shopping cart
B. The payment gateway
C. The inventory database
D. The purchasing database
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following is the most effective strategy for conducting an opt-in e-mail marketing
campaign?
A. Send e-mail messages once a day to initial contacts for the first two weeks.
B. Send e-mail messages once every two weeks to follow up on an initial contact.
C. Create an executable Java application as an e-mail attachment that describes the company.
D. Create an executable ActiveX application as an e-mail attachment that describes the company.
Answer: B

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NO.14 You are transitioning from a traditional "brick-and-mortar?storefront that accepts credit cards to a new
e-commerce storefront. Which payment method would be most appropriate during the transition?
A. Cash on delivery (c.o.d.)
B. Open Buying on the Internet (OBI)
C. Credit card with offline processing
D. Advance payment using check or money order
Answer: C

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NO.15 What security protocol typically allows Web-based applications to pass data securely by providing an
encrypted channel?
A. SET
B. SSH
C. SSL
D. HTTP
Answer: C

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NO.16 What is the name of the electronic funds transfer (EFT) system governed by the United States and
designed to provide the clearing of electronic payments between banks?
A. The National Clearing House (NCH) network
B. The Automated Clearing House (ACH) network
C. The Receiving Depository Financial Institution (RDFI)
D. The Originating Depository Financial Institution (ODFI)
Answer: B

CIW   1D0-525   certification 1D0-525   1D0-525   1D0-525

NO.17 You have just developed a business-to-consumer (B2C) Web site that sells wetsuits for scuba diving.
You want to partner with another company to start a banner ad program. What sort of company would be
the most effective choice for a partner?
A. A company that sells canoes and small boats
B. A company that sells wetsuits mainly to surfers
C. A company that sells tanks, masks and snorkels
D. A company that sells a different brand of wetsuits
Answer: C

CIW   certification 1D0-525   1D0-525   certification 1D0-525

NO.18 Which of the following describes a referrer program?
A. One site pays another site for the traffic it sends; traffic is directed in one direction.
B. One site pays several sites for traffic it sends; traffic is generated in multiple directions.
C. A third party verifies referrals from one site to another site as traffic flows from one to the other.
D. Referrals occur only after a company pays a commission for them; traffic is directed in one direction.
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following can help customers complete purchases more quickly?
A. A well-planned site hierarchy
B. Detailed descriptions of products
C. Product testimonials from other customers
D. An RSS feed directing customers to a site blog
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following is a common cause of a buffer overflow?
A. Unchecked data entered into the buffer
B. Unnecessary services running in the buffer
C. Repeated attempts to guess a password stored in the buffer
D. Unexpected SQL statements causing database information to be revealed in the buffer
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 1D0-635

Nom d'Examen: CIW (CIW JavaScript Specialist)

Questions et réponses: 55 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is a valid variable name in JavaScript?
A. this
B. that
C. 2that
D. 2this
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following demonstrate the correct syntax for the switch statement?
A. var myName= "Paul"
switch (myName)
{
case "Peter"
document.write("My name is Peter.<br />"
)
break
case "Paul"
document.write("My name is Paul.<br />"
)
break: (default)
;
document.write("I do not have a name.<br />"
)
}
B. var myName= "Paul"
switch (myName)
{
case "Peter"
document.write("My name is Peter.<br />"
)
break
case "Paul"
document.write("My name is Paul.<br />"
)
break: (default)
;
document.write("I do not have a name.<br />"
)
}
C. var myName= "Paul"
switch (myName)
{
case (Peter)
document.write("My name is Peter.<br />"
)
break
case (Paul)
document.write("My name is Paul.<br />"
)
break;
case: (default)
;
document.write("I do not have a name.<br />"
)
}
D. var myName= "Paul"
switch (myName)
{
case (Peter)
document.write("My name is Peter.<br />"
)
break
case (Paul)
document.write("My name is Paul.<br />"
)
break;
case: (default)
;
document.write("I do not have a name.<br />"
)
}
Answer: A

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NO.3 Consider the following code: <script type="text/javascript"> var v1 = "alpha"; function f () { var v2 =
"bravo"; alert (v1 + ", " + v2); } f(); v1="charlie"; alert (v1 + ", " + v2); </script> What is the expected result
when you run this script in the browser?
A. An alert box displaying charlie, bravo
B. An alert box displaying alpha, bravo followed by an error
C. Two alert boxes displaying alpha, bravo and alpha, bravo respectively
D. Two alert boxes displaying alpha, bravo and charlie, bravo respectively, followed by an error
Answer: B

CIW examen   1D0-635 examen   1D0-635

NO.4 Consider the following code fragment, which sets up the retrieval of an XML document named fish.xml
and calls a function named showFish(): var xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.open("GET",
"fish.xml", true); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = showFish(); xmlhttp.send();
Which line of code initializes the XMLHttpRequest object.?
A. xmlhttp.send();
B. var xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest();
C. xmlhttp.open("GET", "fish.xml", true);
D. xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = showFish();
Answer: C

CIW   1D0-635   1D0-635

NO.5 Assuming the function <body onload="DisplayName()"> is called, which script block will display Hello
Joe in the document window after you enter the name Joe?
A. <script type="text/javascript"
>
function DisplayName(void)
{
var YourName = window.prompt("What is your name?","Please enter your name")
;
document.write("Hello " + YourName)
;
}
</script>
B. <script type="text/javascript"
>
function DisplayName()
{
var YourName = window.prompt("What is your name?","Please enter your name")
;
document.write("Hello " + YourName)
;
}
</script>
C. <script type="text/javascript"
>
function DisplayName(void)
{
var YourName = document.prompt("What is your name?",Please enter your name)
;
document.write("Hello " + YourName)
;
}
</script>
D. <script type="text/javascript"
>
function DisplayName()
{
var YourName = document.prompt("What is your name?","Please enter your name")
;
document.write("Hello " + yourname)
;
}
</script>
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 1Y0-456

Nom d'Examen: Citrix (Citrix Access Suite 4.0: Build/Test)

Questions et réponses: 39 Q&As

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NO.1 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator recently installed Access Gateway Advanced Edition. The
administrator configured several logon points in the Access Suite Console for internal and external
access into the environment.
Now, the administrator wants to use the logon points to access specific Presentation Server farms.
What can the administrator edit to specify the Presentation Server farms?
A. The logon points
B. The farm properties
C. The servers properties
D. The Access Gateway node
E. The Gateway Appliance node
Answer: A

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NO.2 Scenario: You are the Citrix Administrator and have installed Password Manager onto a Presentation
Server.You only want Password Manager to start for some of the applications published on the
Presentation Server server.
Which two steps must be completed to allow Password Manager to start up for only some of the
applications published on Citrix Presentation Server? (Choose two.)
A. Remove the SSOSHELL.EXE from the Startup directory of the Presentation Server.
B. Create a Presentation Server policy that only allows Password Manager to launch for specific
applications.
C. Use the Password Manager Console "User Configuration Setting" to force the agent to launch only for
specific applications.
D. Manually add a command-line parameter to each published application in Presentation Server to
launch the agent background process.
E. Remove the reference to SSOLauncher from the
"HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\\Software\\Microsoft\\Windows
NT\\CurrentVersion\\Winlogon\\AppSetup" registry key.
Answer: DE

Citrix examen   1Y0-456 examen   1Y0-456   1Y0-456   1Y0-456

NO.3 A Network Administrator configured several logon points for Access Gateway Advanced Edition. The
administrator wants to give users access to network resources through those logon points.
Which two pieces of information should the administrator give to external users so they can connect to the
newly configured logon points instead of the default logon point? (Choose two.)
A. The logon point name
B. The access policy name
C. The IP address of the Access Gateway appliance
D. The fully qualified domain name of the Access Gateway appliance
E. The fully qualified domain name of the Advanced Access Control server
Answer: AD

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NO.4 An administrator configured a logon point for use by offsite users. However, the offsite users are unable
to access the logon point.
How can the administrator provide the offsite users access to the logon point?
A. Redeploy the logon point and select "allow external users access".
B. Edit the logon point and select the "allow external users access" check box.
C. Configure a connection policy to allow the offsite users to connect using the logon point.
D. Configure an access policy to grant the offsite users logon access through the logon point.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Scenario: Password Manager was reinstalled on Presentation Server and is set to use a file share
central store location. The administrator has created a Presentation Server policy for the Agent to
synchronize with a new central store location (Location B). However, when the Agent is launched on
Presentation Server, the Agent connects to the previous central store location (Location A).
What is the most likely reason the user is not receiving the correct information from the central store?
A. The Agent was set to use the wrong central store location when it was installed.
B. The Presentation Server policy is set to use an Active Directory central store type.
C. The Agent is reading the incorrect synchronization location from the user's MMF file.
D. The Agent is reading the incorrect synchronization location from the HKLM\\...\\SyncManager\\Syncs\\
registry key.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 1Y0-A14

Nom d'Examen: Citrix (Implementing Citrix XenDesktop 3)

Questions et réponses: 66 Q&As

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NO.1 An administrator needs to create a vDisk that will run Microsoft Windows Vista as well as one
application. No other applications will be added to the vDisk.
The administrator should create the vDisk so that the vDisk size is __________ MB according to best
practice, and the VHD format is __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. 2040; fixed
B. 8192; fixed
C. 16384; fixed
D. 2040; dynamic
E. 8192; dynamic
F. 16384; dynamic
Answer: C

Citrix   1Y0-A14   1Y0-A14   1Y0-A14

NO.2 In which scenario should an administrator enable user-driven desktop restart?
A. Users need to restart virtual desktops when they take too long to appear
B. Users need to resume working where they left off when a virtual desktop is restarted
C. Users need to restart both the local desktop and the virtual desktop at the same time
D. Users need any unsaved work to be saved automatically when restarting a virtual desktop
Answer: A

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NO.3 An administrator is using the XenDesktop Setup Wizard to build several virtual desktops and needs to
specify the address of the XenServer infrastructure.
Which two pieces of information can be used as the address of the XenServer infrastructure? (Choose
two.)
A. FQDN
B. IP address
C. Farm name
D. MAC address
Answer: AB

Citrix   1Y0-A14   1Y0-A14   certification 1Y0-A14

NO.4 An administrator just created a desktop group that will assign virtual desktops to users upon first use of
the desktop. The administrator now decides to change the desktop group so that the virtual desktops are
pre-assigned.
What must the administrator do to change the desktop group from assign on first use to pre-assigned?
A. Recreate the desktop group using the Access Management Console
B. Change the settings of the desktop group using the XenDesktop Setup Wizard
C. Reconfigure the properties of the desktop group using the Access Management Console
D. Assign the desktop group to a new organizational unit using the Active Directory Configuration Wizard
Answer: A

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NO.5 An administrator is creating a vDisk in a XenDesktop environment and wants to enable automatic vDisk
updates.
Which two vDisk properties must the administrator configure in order for a newer vDisk to replace an older
vDisk? (Choose two.)
A. Date
B. Type
C. Class
D. Description
E. Serial number
Answer: BC

Citrix examen   1Y0-A14   1Y0-A14   1Y0-A14 examen   1Y0-A14

NO.6 Which XenDesktop feature allows an administrator to reduce the amount of storage used in an
environment?
A. Desktop optimization
B. High definition performance
C. Single image desktop management
D. Reliable desktop access management
Answer: C

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NO.7 A user connects to a XenDesktop virtual machine (VM) and then launches a XenApp published
application. The user plays audio from both the application and the desktop. The audio in the application
is set to high, yet the user only hears low quality audio.
Which change does the administrator need to make to improve the audio quality?
A. Reinstall the local sound driver
B. Change the bit-rate on the XenApp policy
C. Set the audio quality on the XenApp policy to low
D. Set the audio quality to high on the XenDesktop policy
Answer: D

Citrix   1Y0-A14   1Y0-A14   certification 1Y0-A14

NO.8 An administrator is configuring Access Gateway for users that will be connecting to virtual desktops
remotely. The administrator needs to include settings for network traffic to XenDesktop.
Which component should the administrator configure to communicate with the Access Gateway?
A. Web Interface
B. Domain Controller
C. Virtual Desktop Agent
D. Desktop Delivery Controller
Answer: A

Citrix   1Y0-A14   1Y0-A14 examen   1Y0-A14 examen

NO.9 A user is attempting to access a virtual desktop provided by Provisioning Services. The Desktop
Delivery Controller has requested that the virtual machine infrastructure boot the virtual desktop.
Which step in the desktop delivery process occurs next?
A. The disk image will be streamed to the virtual desktop
B. The Desktop Delivery Controller will query the license server
C. The Profile Management feature will apply user profile settings to the virtual desktop
D. The computer account of the virtual desktop will be created in Microsoft Active Directory
Answer: A

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NO.10 An administrator created multiple policies in a XenDesktop environment. Each policy has various policy
rules configured with multiple filters based on how users access virtual desktops, the desktop group a
user belongs to, and the client IP address.
When a user logs on to access a virtual desktop, only the __________ will be applied to the user.
(Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A. resultant policy
B. highest priority policy
C. policies without conflicts
D. most recently created policy
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 1Y0-A18

Nom d'Examen: Citrix (Basic Administration for Citrix XenApp 6)

Questions et réponses: 187 Q&As

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NO.1 Scenario: Users want the best performance when displaying images in their sessions. The
administrator decides to configure HDX 3D Image Acceleration to remove redundant data from the
images and improve the image transfer speed. The administrator wants to set this feature to remove the
maximum amount of redundant data so it uses the minimum bandwidth requirements.
Which lossy compression level setting must the administrator select to meet these requirements?
A. None
B. Low
C. Medium
D. High
Answer: D

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NO.2 Scenario: An administrator has published RealOne Player in the farm so users can view multimedia
files from within their sessions and play them on their client devices. HDX MediaStream Multimedia
Acceleration is enabled in the farm. Users are complaining that the multimedia files are NOT playing
correctly.
What must the administrator do to ensure that multimedia files play in user sessions?
A. Disable audio on the server.
B. Enable HDX MediaStream for Flash.
C. Increase the buffer size on the server.
D. Install video and audio codecs on the client device
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which lightweight plug-in is installed with minimal user interaction?
A. MAC plug-in
B. Online plug-in
C. Online plug-in - Web
D. Secure Access plug-in
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which statement best describes the purpose of the data collector?
A. It verifies a user's permissions for the requested application.
B. It is used by the Delivery Services Console to run the farm discovery.
C. It authenticates the user and populates the Web Interface with their icons.
D. It maintains and communicates farm information to data collectors in other zones
Answer: D

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NO.5 Scenario: A user successfully launched a published application through an Access Gateway. The
application is delivered from a XenApp server running in the datacenter and Session Reliability has been
enabled.
Which port is used for communication between the Access Gateway and the XenApp server?
A. 80
B. 443
C. 1494
D. 2598
Answer: D

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NO.6 An administrator has configured an HDX MediaStream for Flash (client-side) policy and set the Flash
latency threshold to 75 milliseconds.
What will the result be if the latency between the server and client device is greater than 75 milliseconds?
A. Flash content quality is improved.
B. Flash content quality is degraded.
C. Flash content is rendered on the client.
D. Flash content is rendered on the server.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Scenario: The main application used in an organization is the CRM application, which is published in a
separate application folder called CRM. An administrator must configure delegated administration rights
for the help desk. The help desk's administrative rights will need to be limited to:
-View all areas of the Delivery Services Console.
-Perform session tasks related to their job, such as resetting sessions across the farm.
Which approach would give the required result for the help desk group?
A. Configure View Only permissions for the Delivery Services Console and configure Full administration
permissions for the sessions node.
B. Configure View Only permissions for the Delivery Services Console and configure Full administration
permissions for the CRM application folder.
C. Configure View Only permissions for the following nodes: Administrators, Farm Management, Printers
and Printer Drivers, Applications and Server Information. Configure Full administration permissions for
"Sessions" under the servers node.
D. Configure View Only permissions for the following nodes: Administrators, Farm Management, Printers
and Printer Drivers, Applications and Server Information. Configure Full administration permissions for
"Sessions" under the CRM folder in the application node.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which port is used by the Citrix License Administration Console?
A. 2598
B. 7279
C. 8082
D. 27000
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which statement correctly describes behavior of the XenApp Server Role Manager?
A. Remote Desktop Services will be automatically installed. Within the XenApp Server role the online
plug-in is automatically installed.
B. Remote Desktop Services will need to be installed separately. Within the XenApp Server role the online
plug-in is automatically installed.
C. Remote Desktop Services will be automatically installed. Within the XenApp Server role both the online
and offline plug-in are automatically installed.
D. Remote Desktop Services will need to be installed separately. Within the XenApp Server role both the
online and offline plug-in are automatically installed.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Scenario: A company's XenApp farm is spread across four geographically separated datacenters. Each
datacenter is its own zone in the farm. Datacenter A contains 50 servers. Datacenter B contains 100
servers. Datacenter C contains 20 servers, and Datacenter D contains 10 servers, one of which is the
license server.
Which datacenter would be the appropriate location for the farm's data store.?
A. Datacenter A
B. Datacenter B
C. Datacenter C
D. Datacenter D
Answer: B

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NO.11 Scenario: A XenApp farm is located in a datacenter in New York. A request has been made to add a
XenApp server in London. The WAN network connection is stable enough to allow the new server to exist
in the New York farm.
What should be done by the administrator to ensure that the least amount of Citrix IMA traffic traverses
the WAN?
A. The administrator needs to create a new zone and add the new server to that zone, making it the zone
data collector.
B. The administrator does not need to create a new zone because Citrix IMA traffic will only originate from
the data collector.
C. The administrator does not need to create a new zone if "Not Preferred" is specified as the election
preference for the new server.
D. The administrator does not need to create a zone for the new server, but rather create a new farm and
link Citrix IMA traffic in the Delivery Center.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Scenario: A user successfully launched a published application delivered from a XenApp server running
within the user's LAN. Session Reliability has been disabled.
Which port is used for communication between the Citrix online plug-in and the XenApp server?
A. 80
B. 1494
C. 2598
D. 3389
Answer: B

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NO.13 Where is SmoothRoaming configured?
A. In the plug-in
B. In a Citrix policy
C. In the farm properties
D. In the Web Interface site properties
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which three options can an administrator use to add members to the Remote Desktop Users group
during a XenApp installation? (Choose three.)
A. Power Users
B. Domain Users
C. Administrators
D. Anonymous Users
E. Authenticated Users
F. List of users from the Users Group
Answer: DEF

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NO.15 Where is CPU Utilization Management configured?
A. Farm properties
B. Citrix Users policy
C. Citrix Computers policy
D. Worker Group properties
Answer: C

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NO.16 Scenario: Users access their XenApp applications through a Web Interface. Each XenApp server has
all the required applications installed. The administrator discovers that users are being connected to
several different XenApp servers while using their applications, causing profile corruption.
How should the administrator resolve this issue?
A. Utilize the session sharing feature by standardizing all published application settings.
B. Utilize the Session Reliability feature by upgrading all online plug-ins to the latest version.
C. Utilize the session sharing feature by standardizing only the screen resolution on all published
applications.
D. Utilize the Session Reliability feature by opening port 2598 between the XenApp servers and the Web
Interface server.
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which option is used to establish farm-wide shadowing settings to force a shadow acceptance prompt
and force logging on all shadow connections?
A. Citrix policy
B. Shadow Taskbar
C. XenApp Server Role Manager
D. Web Interface Management Console
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which method can be used when changing the farm membership of a server?
A. Run the QFARM command.
B. Run the CHFARM command.
C. Use XenApp Server Role Manager.
D. Use the Delivery Services Console.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which two methods can an administrator use to deliver the plug-in to multiple users at the same time?
(Choose two.)
A. Microsoft transform file
B. Command line interface
C. Merchandising Server rules
D. Active Directory Group Policy
Answer: CD

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NO.20 A zone data collector ___________ . (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. handles ICA traffic for the zone
B. writes information to the data store
C. is responsible for maintaining server load evaluator information
D. makes sure all XML traffic is routed between the servers in the zone
Answer: C

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