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2014年4月15日星期二

Le plus récent matériel de formation EMC E20-616

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Code d'Examen: E20-616
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Symmetrix Installation and Troubleshooting Specialist)
Questions et réponses: 241 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer wants to set up an FA port for a 10km distance connection. Which optic mode will meet the
customer's need?
A. Long wave, Fibre Multi Mode port
B. Long wave, Fibre Single Mode port
C. Short wave, Fibre Multi Mode port
D. Short wave, Fibre Single Mode port
Answer: B

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NO.2 A service processor fails to communicate with directors 1 through 8 in the DMX-2 series. Which
component can cause this failure?
A. CCM0
B. ECM0
C. ECM1
D. XCM
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is a major difference in director data flow between the Symmetrix 8000 series and a DMX-2?
A. An 8430 uses loop redundancy
B. An 8530's directors are connected to two data busses
C. Directors in a DMX-2 are connected to top high and bottom low
D. DMX-2 port bypass cards are connected directly to cache
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer's AC power fails to a Symmetrix 8430/8530. In this case, which components will the
battery subsystem sustain?
A. Card cage and disks
B. Communication cards and service processors
C. Disk drives and memory
D. Memory cards and service processor
Answer: A

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NO.5 When is the relationship between a data volume and a BCV created?
A. When the BCV is created in the bin file
B. When the BCV is established
C. When the BCV is split
D. When the BCV is varied on
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is a difference between a Symmetrix 8830 and a DMX-2?
A. An 8830 24-slot card cage is scalable
B. Disks on a DMX-2 are FC-AL
C. DMX-2 uses a cache interconnect multi-drop bus
D. Maximum system bandwidth on an 8830 is 16Gb/s
Answer: B

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NO.7 When will a customer's host be able to access the data on a BCV?
A. After the BCV is established
B. After the BCV is split
C. When the BCV is created in the Bin
D. While the BCV is syncing with the data volume
Answer: B

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NO.8 What does the Interleave Service Policy manage during a read operation?
A. Reads the tracks from M1 and M2 randomly
B. Reads the tracks from M1 and M2 alternatively
C. Reads the tracks only from M1
D. Tracks measurements of I/O on logical volumes and chooses the appropriate mirror
Answer: B

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NO.9 A DMX-2 memory configuration containing four (4) memory boards is to be upgraded to larger size
cache boards. The upgrade results in a two (2) memory board configuration. How will the bandwidth of
the DMX-2 be affected by the upgrade?
A. Decreased by the smaller cache card count
B. Increased by the larger memory size
C. Unchanged, only memory size is affected
D. Will remain at the theoretical maximum
Answer: B

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NO.10 How is DPR enabled?
A. By the EMC z/OS Storage Manager
B. In the bin file
C. Inlines Command
D. On the host by z/OS
Answer: B

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NO.11 On a DMX1000P, how many DAs are required?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.12 Click the exhibit button.
You are viewing the rear of the DMX1000 card cage. Which card is CCM0?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: D

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NO.13 A customer wants to change Host Directors to support SRDF. What distinguishes one director type
from another within a Symmetrix 8000 series?
A. Director model number
B. Director revision
C. Emulation code
D. Enginuity code level
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which type of Symmetrix volume contains information on the dynamic mirror policy decisions, error
logging, event traces, code image storage, and a dedicated lost write area?
A. BCV
B. Data
C. DRV
D. SFS
Answer: D

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NO.15 All the memory slots in a DMX-1000 are occupied. In this case, what is run from the procedure Wizard
to perform Memory Replacement?
A. Add Memory Board script to the Universal slot script, run Replace Memory Board Script, and replace
that board
B. Remove Memory Board script first and then Add Memory Board Script
C. Replace Memory Board script
D. Upgrade Memory Board script
Answer: B

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NO.16 When looking at the DMX FA Back Adapter, you notice that one of the SFPs is blue. What does this
mean?
A. Long wave, multi mode port
B. Long wave, single mode port
C. Short wave, multi mode port
D. Short wave, single mode port
Answer: B

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NO.17 Click the exhibit button.
The customer has handed you this service alert error message. What is the error?
A. Alarm signal set
B. PC failed to call home due to communication problems
C. Temperature problems
D. Mirror device is not ready at time of periodic test
Answer: D

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NO.18 Click the exhibit button.
You are viewing the rear of the DMX1000 card cage. Which card is ECM1?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: B

EMC   E20-616   E20-616   E20-616   E20-616

NO.19 Which component of a DMX-2 performs Front End, director-to-director communications?
A. CCM
B. ECM
C. LCC
D. PBC
Answer: A

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NO.20 Click the exhibit button.
You are viewing the rear of a Symmetrix DMX22000/3000 Card Cage. Where will you find ECM1?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: E20-822
Nom d'Examen: EMC (CLARiiON Solutions Expert Exam for Storage Administrators)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer has recently upgraded their CLARiiON to FLARE R26. What software and configuration
changes must the storage administrator ensure are in place to take advantage of the Asymmetric
Active/Active features of the software?
A.PowerPath 5.0; and change all initiators to use Failover mode 2
B.PowerPath 5.0; disable ArrayCommPath, and change all initiators to use Failover mode 4
C.PowerPath 5.1; and change all initiators to use Failover mode 4
D.PowerPath 5.1; disable Array CommPath, and change all host initiators to use Failover mode 3
Answer: C

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NO.2 A company has requested an independent consultant to develop and implement a security model for
the CLARiiON storage platform. The company has limited access to the administrator role by removing
rights for all accounts. However, they would like to keep the single administrator role account for top level
management.
Management of user security should not be done by the administrator role user. In addition, the storage
object administrators should not be able to change user security when using the Secure CLI. CLARiiON
storage systems are located in a protected data center with limited physical access.
Which method should be employed to manage user security?
A.Create a Security Administrator role user and create a Manager role user account for storage object
managers.
B.Create a Security Administrator role user, enable the CLI filter, and create a Manager role user account
for storage object managers.
C.Implement security using PKI certificates, create a Security Administrator role user, and enable the CLI
filter.
D.Implement security using PKI certificates, enable the CLI filter, and create a Manager role user account
for storage object managers.
Answer: B

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NO.3 A company has implemented Replication Manager to back up their SQL Server. In addition to clone
copies every 6 hours, they have also implemented SQL Server log backups for a more granular RPO.
Last night, a junior DBA corrupted the production database. After using Replication Manager to restore
the database with no recovery, the senior DBA attempts to replay the transaction log backups but the
database returns an error indicating that no database is in a state to replay logs.
What is the cause of this restore failure?
A.Replication Manager only supports transaction log replay on databases restored with full recovery
B.rmsqlrestore.exe was not used to replay the VDI metadata
C.The restored database's SCN is out of sync with the SQL system databases
D.The transaction log backups have a gap in the sequence of transactions
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer uses Incremental SAN Copy (ISC) as part of a DR solution. They have configured the
Reserved LUN Pool (RLP). They are adapting their environment to support different failure scenarios.
Which combination of failures is most serious?
A.A failure of the ISC update followed by a failure of the production LUN
B.A failure of the ISC update followed by a failure of the remote LUN
C.A failure of the link followed by a failure of the remote RLP
D.A failure of the RLP on the remote CLARiiON followed by a failure of the remote LUN
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer has been tasked with copying 50 LUNs between two CLARiiONs using SAN Copy. The
customer starts the sessions selecting all defaults. The resulting copies appear to be taking an
unexpectedly long time.
Which settings should be increased to improve performance?
A.Reserved LUN Pool Size, Concurrent sessions
B.Throttle Value, Concurrent sessions
C.Throttle Value, Reserved LUN Pool Size
D.Write cache, Reserved LUN Pool
Answer: B

EMC   E20-822   E20-822   E20-822   E20-822

NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
While performing a routine check of a CX3-40 with FLARE R26 the storage administrator receives an
error while trying to clear the logs. What is the cause of the error?
A.Host agent is not running
B.The Privileged User List is empty
C.The user is logged in as a security administrator role
D.The user is logged in with a manager role
Answer: D

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
You are the SAN Administrator at a company. The company is running multiple Exchange Server 2007
storage groups on a CLARiiON array that exclusively uses 15k rpm 146 GB drives. You have been tasked
with adding a third Exchange storage group with one mailbox store to the existing server.
The storage for this new Exchange storage group must be allocated from the same CLARiiON currently
running the other two Exchange storage groups. All Exchange storage groups are presently exhibiting a
1:1 read/write ratio. The new storage group will require capacity identical to the existing Exchange
storage groups.
The table below, as well as the exhibit, indicates the current utilization of the array.w`V6a2tYJ%&,*In
order to satisfy the capacity requirements (GB and IOPS), in which RAID group must you create a
database LUN for the new Exchange storage group?
A.0
B.10
C.20
D.30b
Answer: C

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NO.8 A large financial customer has a time-critical OLTP application running on a dedicated CX3-80. One of
their internal administrators believes they modified something that could have affected the production
LUN. Since then the response time has increased significantly.
What action is the likely cause of the problem?
A.Decreased the high watermark to 75%
B.Enabled auto-assignment
C.Increased queue depth to 128
D.Increased the cache write aside value to 3076
Answer: C

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
While performing a routine check of a CX3-40 with FLARE R26 the storage administrator receives an
error while trying to clear the logs. What is the cause of the error?
A.Host agent is not running
B.The Privileged User List is empty
C.The user is logged in as a security administrator role
D.The user is logged in with a manager role
Answer: D

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NO.10 You are using Replication Manager to make clones of two production Exchange mailbox database
LUNs. After reviewing the event log for the week, you notice there have been numerous failures but no
alerts have been sent out. Replication Manager was configured to send email alerts in case of an
Exchange job failure.
What is preventing the email alerts from being sent out?
A.MAPI32.DLL is missing on the Replication Manager server
B.Outlook was not installed on the Replication Manager server
C.The Replication Manager console was not configured to relay alerts
D.The SMTP service in IIS was not configured on the Replication Manager server
Answer: D

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NO.11 A large warehousing company has two CLARiiONs with two LUNs set up and each is mirrored with
MirrorView/A over DWDM. The two sites are less than 1 km away.
The company is currently running an OLTP database on a 300 GB RAID 1/0 4+4 LUN and its logging on a
150 GB RAID 1/0 4+4 LUN. The I/O read/write ratio is 2:1 with a 2 kB average I/O size.
The customer notices that at peak times the latency becomes an issue as their users start to complain
about poor performance. What is your recommendation?
A.Check the fibre for faults
B.Upgrade the CLARiiON model
C.Use Incremental SAN Copy
D.Use MirrorView/S
Answer: D

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NO.12 A customer has a single RAID group with a RAID 1/0 6+6 LUN on a dedicated DAE2. This LUN is
active on SP A. They need to expand with the maximum possible increase in IOPS. The LUN may not go
offline. The customer has a new DAE2 with the same disks.
How should they proceed?
A.Add 12 disks to the current RAID group. Create a new LUN. Create a striped metaLUN.
B.Back up the current LUN. Create a new RAID group and a new LUN on SP B. Present it to the host and
create a LVM plaid. Restore the data.
C.Create a new RAID group and create a new LUN on SP A. Create a concatenated metaLUN.
D.Create a new RAID group and create a new LUN on SP A. Create a striped metaLUN.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer wants to create an additional 250 GB LUN on their existing RAID 6 group. How can this be
accomplished?
A.Create the LUN on another RAID 6 group using concatenation
B.Defragment the RAID group and bind the additional LUN
C.Destroy the RAID group and create the new LUNs
D.Expand the RAID group to increase the available space
Answer: A

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NO.14 A customer was running a snapshot session when they noticed a SP failure. The Source LUN was
owned by the failed SP. What will happen to the session and the Reserved LUN Pool (RLP) LUN?
A.Session continues and the RLP LUNs trespass. After repairing the failed SP, the RLP LUN must be
manually trespassed to the original owning SP.
B.Session continues and the RLP LUNs trespass. After repairing the failed SP, the RLP LUN trespasses
back to the original owning SP.
C.Session gets deactivated and the SP frees the allocated LUN. After fixing the failed SP, the session will
activate and the original RLP LUN will be allocated.
D.Session stops and a new RLP LUN will be allocated on the surviving SP upon fixing the failed SP. The
RLP LUN will trespass back to the original SP and the user must manually restart the session.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer uses multiple server preparation scripts; one for new Exchange servers and one for recovery.
These scripts are used to configure the CLARiiON storage using the Navisphere Secure CLI. The
customer calls and reports that they accidentally ran the new server preparation script instead of the
recovery script they intended to run.
The customer asks for a check to see if their data is still available from CLARiiON storage as they cannot
find their LUNs. The CLARiiON SP event logs show the data in the exhibit. Which method can the
customer use to correct the problem?
A.Rebind base and component LUNs, reform the metaLUN, place the metaLUN in SG for the host, and
recover the data from the backup.
B.Reform the metaLUN from the original base and component LUNs, place the metaLUN in SG for the
host, and recover the data from the backup.
C.Use CLARiiON recovery tools to recover the metaLUN, place the metaLUN in SG for the host, and
recover the data from the backup.
D.Use Navisphere Secure CLI tools to recover base and component LUNs, reform the metaLUN, and
place the metaLUN in SG for the host.
Answer: A

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NO.16 Click the Exhibit button.
What is true of LUN 3?
A.Disk crossings are excessively high
B.Disk utilization is above the best practices threshold
C.The host data is misaligned
D.The number of stripe crossings indicates a large I/O size
Answer: C

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NO.17 A customer is reporting a problem with a physical disk. Examining the SP Event Log shows errors for
LUN 16. Data is being gathered from a UNIX host used for storage management. The host does not have
the capability to run the Navisphere Web UI.
To determine the underlying disk structure, which Navisphere Secure CLI subcommand can be used to
determine if LUN 16 is being affected?
A.getdisk
B.getinfo
C.getlun
D.getrg
Answer: C

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NO.18 Click the Exhibit button.
While performing a routine check of a CX3-40 with FLARE R26 the storage administrator receives an
error while trying to clear the logs. What is the cause of the error?
A.Host agent is not running
B.The Privileged User List is empty
C.The user is logged in as a security administrator role
D.The user is logged in with a manager role
Answer: D

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NO.19 A new CLARiiON arrives at a customer's site and an EMC Customer Engineer performs the physical
installation. The storage administrator is under a lot of pressure to have the array online and in production
by the end of the week. The storage administrator selects several Windows and Solaris servers for the
initial production rollout. The storage requirements have been agreed upon and the storage administrator
creates 30 LUNs of various sizes based upon EMC best practices.
The administrator works with the server team to install HBAs, update settings, install EMC software, and
then perform the necessary cabling and zoning requirements. After the hosts successfully register with
the CLARiiON array, the Windows and Solaris administrators state each server has 30 LUNs allocated.
What does the storage administrator need to accomplish to ensure each server has access to the
appropriate LUNs?
A.Create the appropriate storage groups
B.Disable Access Logix
C.Enable Access Logix
D.Fix the incorrect zones
Answer: C

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NO.20 A customer has configured SnapView for two LUNs on a DR CLARiiON storage system. When the
client attempts to run the Navisphere Secure CLI command to create the snapshot session, it fails.
In the setup process for using SnapView, which step did the customer forget to do?
A.Allocate LUNs to the Reserved LUN Pool
B.Allocate Write Intent Log
C.Enable Incremental Synchronization
D.Test IP link latency
Answer: A

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NO.21 A customer created two RAID groups, 0 and 2, with the default settings on their CX3-80 and bound
four LUNs in each group. After starting the application the customer notices all I/O is going through SP B.
What caused the LUN imbalance?
A.CX3-80 has a single SP
B.Default setting bound all LUNs on the same SP
C.Host does not have failover software installed
D.Host is not ALUA-aware
Answer: B

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NO.22 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer wants to create an additional 250 GB LUN on their existing RAID 6 group. How can this be
accomplished?
A.Create the LUN on another RAID 6 group using concatenation
B.Defragment the RAID group and bind the additional LUN
C.Destroy the RAID group and create the new LUNs
D.Expand the RAID group to increase the available space
Answer: A

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NO.23 A customer is implementing the Replication Manager/SAN Copy/RepliStor solution for DR of their
Exchange environment. In the process of configuring this solution they need to configure the RM DR
utility to run after the completion of the SAN Copy job.
Which level of IR callout should they use in order for the script to invoke at the proper time?
A.100
B.300
C.400
D.600
Answer: D

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NO.24 A customer is currently using Replication Manager to create clone copies of their SQL Server instance
which are then mounted to a backup server and streamed to tape. The customer has decided to purchase
a second CLARiiON and implement a DR scenario. The DR site is located 30 km away. A dedicated T1
(1.5 Mb) line is leased specifically for DR purposes with measured latencies that average 5-10 ms.
The application is considered mission-critical and as such very little data loss is acceptable. Any solution
implemented must have very little impact on performance. Time will be allowed for the application to be
recovered in the case of a disaster. The implemented solution must also allow for transaction logs to be
replayed in the case of data corruption.
Which DR solution would best fit this scenario?
A.MirrorView/A
B.RepliStor SQL Server Module
C.SQL Log Shipping/Full SAN Copy from the production LUN
D.SQL Log Shipping/Incremental SAN Copy from the production LUN
Answer: C

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NO.25 A customer created two RAID groups, 0 and 2, with the default settings on their CX3-80 and bound
four LUNs in each group. After starting the application the customer notices all I/O is going through SP B.
What caused the LUN imbalance?
A.CX3-80 has a single SP
B.Default setting bound all LUNs on the same SP
C.Host does not have failover software installed
D.Host is not ALUA-aware
Answer: B

EMC   E20-822   E20-822 examen   E20-822

NO.26 Click the Exhibit button.
A failure has occurred in a DR environment. The error message is displayed in the exhibit. What must be
done to correct the failure?
A.Add more LUNs to the remote CLARiiON RLP. Restart the synchronization.
B.Destroy the mirror. Add a secondary of the correct size.
C.Enable write cache on the remote CLARiiON Write Intent Logs. Restart the synchronization.
D.Increase the write cache size on the remote CLARiiON.
Answer: A

EMC   E20-822   E20-822   certification E20-822

NO.27 A new CLARiiON arrives at a customer's site and an EMC Customer Engineer performs the physical
installation. The storage administrator is under a lot of pressure to have the array online and in production
by the end of the week. The storage administrator selects several Windows and Solaris servers for the
initial production rollout. The storage requirements have been agreed upon and the storage administrator
creates 30 LUNs of various sizes based upon EMC best practices.
The administrator works with the server team to install HBAs, update settings, install EMC software, and
then perform the necessary cabling and zoning requirements. After the hosts successfully register with
the CLARiiON array, the Windows and Solaris administrators state each server has 30 LUNs allocated.
What does the storage administrator need to accomplish to ensure each server has access to the
appropriate LUNs?
A.Create the appropriate storage groups
B.Disable Access Logix
C.Enable Access Logix
D.Fix the incorrect zones
Answer: C

certification EMC   E20-822   E20-822   E20-822

NO.28 Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the exhibit, what happened between 05:21 A.M. and 06:56 A.M.?
A.CLARiiON back-end port was disconnected
B.CLARiiON front-end port was disconnected
C.MirrorView connection failed
D.SAN Copy connection failed
Answer: C

EMC examen   E20-822   E20-822 examen   E20-822 examen   E20-822   E20-822

NO.29 Click the Exhibit button.
While performing a routine check of a CX3-40 with FLARE R26 the storage administrator receives an
error while trying to clear the logs. What is the cause of the error?
A.Host agent is not running
B.The Privileged User List is empty
C.The user is logged in as a security administrator role
D.The user is logged in with a manager role
Answer: D

EMC   E20-822 examen   E20-822

NO.30 Click the Exhibit button.
A storage administrator is automating a solution using the Navisphere Secure CLI. In the event of
production data corruption, the script needs to recover from the target LUNs.
Which steps should the script perform?
P = Primary
S = Secondary
Snap = Snapshot
A.Unmount P, fracture, roll back Snap, synchronize, promote P, and mount P
B.Unmount P, promote S, fracture, roll back Snap, synchronize, promote P, and mount P
C.Unmount P, roll back Snap, promote S, fracture, synchronize, promote P, and mount P
D.Unmount P, roll back Snap, restore S, and mount P
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: E20-335
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers)
Questions et réponses: 105 Q&As

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NO.1 Which command is used to set or reset HBA port flags on Symmetric arrays running Enable 7.0
Enginuity 5874?
A. symcfg
B. symmask
C. symconfigure
D. symaccess
Answer: D

certification EMC   E20-335   E20-335   certification E20-335   E20-335

NO.2 An SRDF failover has been executed during the testing phase of an implementation. What is the
expected status of the R1 and R2 devices after performing SRDF failover operation?
A. R1 and R2 Not Ready
B. R1 Wnte Disabled; R2 Read/Wnte
C. R1 Read/Wnte, R2 Read/Wnte
D. R1 Read/Wnte. R2 Wnte Disabled
Answer: Bhttp://www.scribd.com/doc/29541661/Srdf-Operations-white-Paper

NO.3 Open Replicator pull will be used to move data between a third party array and a Symmetrix V-Max
array.
What is recommended before starting the Open Replicator session?
A. Ensure that the remote devices are Host read/write enabled
B. Ensure that the control devices are Not Ready
C. Ensure that the remote devices are Host inaccessible
D. Ensure that the control devices are Write Disabled
Answer: C

certification EMC   E20-335   certification E20-335   certification E20-335

NO.4 Diagnostic messaging for the GNS daemon is written to which file?
A. /7SYMAPI/emc/storgnsd .log0
B. /SYMAPI/log/storgnsd.log0
C. /SYMAPl/usr/storgnsd log0
D. /SYMAPl/bin/storgnsd log0
Answer: B

EMC examen   E20-335   E20-335 examen

NO.5 What is recommended before creating a TimeFinder/Mirror replica?
A. Ensure that the production application using the source devices is shut down
B. Ensure that all writes from the production application using the source devices are paused!
C. Ensure that the BCVs are not being actively accessed
D. Set the BCVs to a Not Ready state
Answer: Chttp://www.scribd.com/doc/37352326/Emc-Study-2

NO.6 Refer to the exhibit.
A database server has its logs stored on a volume on the log source Symmetrix V-Max array and its data
stored on a volume on the data source Symmetrix V-Max array. Both source Symmetrix V-Max array
frames replicate data to the target Symmetrix V-Max array at the Remote site. There are two device
groups that have been defined:
One group for the data volume on the Symmetrix containing the data LUNs
One group for the log volume on the Symmetrix containing the log LUNS
What happens if the SRDF inks between the Symmetrix contain the data LUNs and the target Symmetrix
were to fail?
A. The R2 data in the database remains consistent because Enginuity Consistency Assist (RDFECAJ
technology would ensure data consistency).
B. The data in the database becomes inconsistent at the Remote site.
C. An SRDF failover would be initiated on all volumes and processing will automatically be switched over
to the Remote site
D. The R2 volumes in the Symmetrix V-Max containing the log LUNs would become write-disabled to the
database server
Answer: C

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NO.7 You have been asked to create a configuration for a single engine Symmetric V-Max array with 8 DAEs
and 64 drivers. They would like to have the data devices with RAID 5(7+1) protection.
What would be the largest number of members you would recommend for a stripped metavolume.?
A. 4
B. 16
C. 8
D. 32
Answer: B

certification EMC   E20-335   certification E20-335   E20-335   E20-335 examen

NO.8 In symmetric V-max series array running Enginuity 5874, which device is used as a pass-through
device for Auto provisioning?
A. VDEV
B. VCM
C. ACLX
D. SFS
Answer: C

EMC   E20-335   E20-335 examen   E20-335 examen

NO.9 On the Symmetrix platform, which type of RAID protection ensures the best random write performance?
A. RAID 1
B. RAID S
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 5
Answer: A

EMC   E20-335   E20-335   E20-335

NO.10 One of the requirements, during an Open Replicator implementation is that production application
should not be implemented by open Replication session. An analysis of the control Symmetrix showed
that FA ports are currently 70% utilized. How should pace and ceiling be configured?
A. Pace should be set to 0 and Ceiling should be left at the default
B. Pace should be left at the default and Ceiling set to 30
C. Pace should be left at the default and Ceiling set to 100
D. Pace should be set to 9 and Ceiling should be set to 70
Answer: B

certification EMC   E20-335   E20-335   E20-335

NO.11 How does Delta Set Extension help in an SRDF/A deployment?
A. Reduces RPO
B. Reduces the amount of required cache
C. Improves response time
D. Absorbs bursts of host writes
Answer: D

EMC   E20-335   E20-335   E20-335

NO.12 Which file contains the parameter that can change the default behavior of SYMCLI operations, and
there control actions?
A. SYMCLI options File
B. SYMAPI Options File
C. SYMCLI Command File
D. SYMAPI Command File
Answer: B

EMC examen   certification E20-335   certification E20-335   E20-335

NO.13 Where is the volume Logix Database maintained starting with DMX-3?
A. VCM gatekeeper
B. Symmetrix logical Volume
C. Symmetrix File System
D. VCM database.
Answer: C

EMC examen   E20-335   certification E20-335   E20-335   E20-335

NO.14 What is required to ensure the integrity of data on the R2 volume during a SRDF fallback operation?
A. Remove entries from the file system table
B. Stop any applications that are accessing the R2 volume
C. Disable journaling on the file system
D. Suspend the RDF link
Answer: B

EMC   E20-335   certification E20-335

NO.15 Refer to the exhibit
What is the correct state for the Standard and Rl-BCV prior to issuing a symreplicate start command?
A. Synchronized
B. Suspended
C. Split
D. Write-Enable
Answer: C

EMC   E20-335 examen   E20-335   E20-335   E20-335

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Code d'Examen: E20-594
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Backup and Recovery - Avamar Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers)
Questions et réponses: 117 Q&As

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NO.1 Garbage collection is running on an EMC Avamar server. What activities can be performed at this time?
A.Delete backups, and change retention settings
B.Restore, browse existing backups, and queue backups
C.Restore, delete backups, and add new clients
D.Change retention settings, and modify clients and domains
Answer:B

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NO.2 What is the default IP address assigned to the management port of an EMC Avamar Data Store node?
A.10.99.99.1
B.10.99.99.99
C.10.99.99.5
D.10.99.99.0
Answer:C

certification EMC   E20-594   E20-594   E20-594 examen

NO.3 What would you run to determine if your EMC Avamar server is running in a steady state?
A.status.dpn
B.healthcheck.pl
C.capacity.sh
D.dpnctl status
Answer:C

EMC examen   E20-594   certification E20-594   E20-594

NO.4 What is the access mode of the server during an EMC Avamar checkpoint maintenance activity?
A.Read-only during checkpoint creation; read-write for the remainder of the activity
B.Read-only throughout the activity
C.Access is disabled during checkpoint creation; read-only for the remainder of the activity
D.Access is disabled throughout the activity
Answer:A

certification EMC   E20-594   certification E20-594

NO.5 Which port does EMC Avamar use to access the Management Console database for reporting?
A.7778
B.5555
C.28002
D.29000
Answer:B

EMC   E20-594   certification E20-594

NO.6 By default, where are the EMC Avamar files located on a Solaris client?
A./opt/AVMRclnt
B./opt/bin/avmrclnt
C./opt/lib/avmrclnt
D./usr/sbin/AVMRclnt
Answer:A

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NO.7 The EMC Avamar backup administrator is starting an ad-hoc backup using the Avamar Administrator
interface. However, you notice that avtar is not starting on the client.
Where is the first place you should look to begin troubleshooting?
A.err.log
B.avtar.log
C.avscc.log
D.avagent.log
Answer:D

EMC examen   E20-594 examen   certification E20-594

NO.8 What does an HFS check do?
A.Validates the integrity of a checkpoint
B.Performs server checkpoint rollbacks
C.Performs a snapshot of an Avamar server
D.Checks for RAID controller errors
Answer:A

EMC   E20-594   certification E20-594   E20-594 examen   certification E20-594

NO.9 What is the default duration of the Backup window in EMC Avamar?
A.8 hours
B.12 hours
C.6 hours
D.10 hours
Answer:B

EMC   E20-594   E20-594   E20-594   E20-594

NO.10 Which port must be open on an EMC Avamar utility node to be able to browse a client file system?
A.28001
B.27000
C.26000
D.28002
Answer:D

EMC examen   E20-594   E20-594   E20-594 examen

NO.11 Which field within the DPN Summary report indicates how much data has been transferred to the EMC
Avamar server?
A.ModSent
B.Overhead
C.ModReduced
D.TotalBytes
Answer:A

EMC   E20-594 examen   E20-594 examen

NO.12 Which backup level(s) does the EMC Avamar SQL Plug-in support?
A.Full and Incremental only
B.Full, Differential, and Incremental
C.Full only
D.Full and Differential only
Answer:B

EMC   certification E20-594   E20-594 examen   E20-594

NO.13 What is the recommended replication method for moving all data and clients from a single node to a
multinode EMC Avamar server?
A./REPLICATE replication
B.Normal replication
C.Selective replication
D.Root-to-root replication
Answer:D

EMC   E20-594   E20-594   E20-594   E20-594 examen

NO.14 Which hash represents each data chunk processed during an EMC Avamar backup?
A.root
B.composite
C.atomic
D.file metadata
Answer:C

EMC   E20-594   E20-594 examen   E20-594

NO.15 Which mode(s) of EMC Avamar replication allows for many-to-one and bi-directional replication?
A.Normal
B.Root-to-root
C.Full Copy
D.Normal and root-to-root
Answer:A

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2014年4月11日星期五

L'avènement de la certification EMC pratique d'examen E20-340 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: E20-340
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Clariion solutiongs implementation)
Questions et réponses: 118 Q&As

E20-340 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/E20-340.html

NO.1 What do drives 0_0_0 to 0_0_4 in a CX4 contain?
A.FLARE and vault
B.Linux OS and metadata
C.DART and vault
D.Enginuity and metadata
Answer: A

EMC   E20-340   E20-340 examen

NO.2 What software is used to assign IP addresses when installing a new CLARiiON?
A.Unisphere Initialization Utility
B.Unisphere Server Utility
C.Unisphere Service Manager
D.Unisphere Client
Answer: A

EMC examen   E20-340   E20-340

NO.3 What is the maximum number of disk drives that can be configured in a pool on a CX4-480.?
A.475
B.16
C.480
D.32
Answer: A

EMC   E20-340   E20-340   E20-340

NO.4 Refer to the exhibit. Which port has a fixed IP and subnet mask?
A.A
B.B
C.C
D.D
E.E
Answer: A

EMC examen   E20-340   E20-340   E20-340 examen   E20-340 examen

NO.5 Refer to the exhibit.
What is the correct order of the management module components?
A.GbE Service LAN; B-GbE Management LAN; C-Service Port COM1; D-SPS Port COM2; E-NMI Button
B.GbE Management LAN; B-GbE Service LAN; C-Service Port COM1; D-SPS Port COM2; E-NMI Button
C.SPS Port COM2; B-NMI Button; C-Service Port COM1; D-GbE Service LAN; E-GbE Management LAN
D.GbE Service LAN; B-GbE Management LAN; C-SPS Port COM2; D-Service Port COM1; E-NMI Button
Answer: A

EMC examen   E20-340   E20-340   E20-340 examen

NO.6 A customer would like to extend their CX4 cache after purchasing Flash drives.
Which Unisphere dialog should be used to configure this feature?
A.Storage System Properties, FAST Cache tab
B.Storage SP Properties, Cache tab
C.Storage SP Properties, SP Memory tab
D.Storage System Properties, SP Cache
Answer: A

EMC examen   E20-340   certification E20-340   E20-340   E20-340 examen

NO.7 Which access restrictions are enabled if IP address filtering is configured on a CLARiiON?
A.Specific management clients
B.iSCSI ports, and ESRS communications
C.Unisphere service ports
D.iSCSI ports
Answer: A

EMC examen   E20-340   E20-340   E20-340

NO.8 A customer has requested onsite assistance because they are currently unable to communicate with
SPA.
You arrive onsite and connect to the GbE Service LAN. What IP address do you use to connect to SPA?
A.128.221.1.250
B.192.168.1.250
C.128.221.1.251
D.192.168.1.251
Answer: A

EMC examen   E20-340   E20-340   E20-340

NO.9 You are implementing Unisphere security on a CX4 CLARiiON with FLARE 30. The customer has
requested that all certificates be validated when naviseccli is used.
What level of certificate validation does EMC recommend be set for naviseccli?
A.Medium
B.High
C.Low
D.Ignore
Answer: A

certification EMC   E20-340 examen   E20-340   E20-340 examen   certification E20-340

NO.10 How many CLARiiON arrays are qualified to be in a single domain?
A.100
B.96
C.48
D.128
Answer: A

EMC   E20-340   E20-340   certification E20-340   E20-340   certification E20-340

NO.11 A customer would like to configure NTP using Unisphere. What is the minimum polling time allowed for
NTP?
A.30 minutes
B.60 minutes
C.15 minutes
D.10 minutes
Answer: A

EMC examen   certification E20-340   E20-340 examen   E20-340   certification E20-340

NO.12 How many front-end ports are required to provide failover between SPs for eight direct-attached hosts
on a CX4?
A.16
B.8
C.4
D.2
Answer: A

EMC   E20-340   E20-340   E20-340

NO.13 A customer has a CX4 series CLARiiON and is experiencing a problem with SPA. Upon arrival you
notice that the SPA Fault LED is amber and flashing at a rate of four times a second.
What is the boot state of SPA?
A.POST Starting OS
B.OS Booted
C.Executing BIOS
D.FLARE Driver Complete
Answer: A

certification EMC   E20-340   E20-340   E20-340

NO.14 A customer has a domain and for security reasons, management and CLI features can only be
performed from the SAN team workstations.
How would IP filtering be configured?
A.SAN team workstation IP addresses
B.SPA IP addresses
C.DNS IP addresses
D.Management stations ¯ I P add r esse
Answer: A

EMC   E20-340   E20-340   certification E20-340

NO.15 When working with FLARE 30, which tool is required when upgrading FLARE or performing a DAE
upgrade?
A.Unisphere Service Manager
B.Unisphere Server Utility
C.Unisphere Initialization Utility
D.NDU Upgrade Tool
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: E20-475
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Content Management Systems Architecture Exam)
Questions et réponses: 231 Q&As

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NO.1 Your client's Content Servers are running on Sun/Oracle. These servers have numerous custom
applications installed and have been ugpraded several times. Security and regulatory considerations
preclude the copying of certain production data to non-production systems. The client's
configuration/change management processes and systems are incomplete or missing. You are tasked
with drafting a plan to copy a repository from the production environment to a development environment in
preparation for an upgrade.
Which process should you use to ensure that the new development environment is as similar to the
production environment as possible?
A. install Content Server in the development environment using the same docbase id as the production
environment
use the Oracle Import/Export tools to export the production database and import it into the
development environment
modify various configuration data to conform to the development environment
copy a subset of the production content to the development storage
B. install Content Server in the development environment using the same docbase id as the production
environment
use the Dump and Load utility to transfer data and metadata from the production environment to the
development environment
modify various configuration data to conform to the development environment
use DQL/DFC applications to delete potentially sensitive data from the development environment
C. copy the entire $DOCUMENTUM directory and all subdirectories from the production to the
development environment
use the Dump and Load utility to transfer data and metadata from the production environment to the
development environment
modify various configuration data to conform to the development environment
D. copy the entire $DOCUMENTUM directory and all subdirectories from the production to the
development environment
use the Oracle Import/Export tools to export the production database and import it into the
development environment
modify various configuration data to conform to the development environment
create a dm_location object and filestore in the production system pointing to the development
storage
use the Migrate Content method with an appropriate DQL qualifier to copy a non-restricted subset of
the production content to the development filestores
remove the new dm_location and dm_filestore objects
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which file(s) handle client configuration in D6?
A. dmcl.ini only
B. dfc.properties only
C. dmcl.ini and dfc.properties
D. dmclfull.ini only
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are planning the upgrade of your Content Server software with Branch Office Caching Service
(BOCS) on a remote site. The repository has approximately one million objects with 400 GB of content
and 350 GB of full-text indexes. The BOCS cache has 20 GB of content.
What must be backed up before starting with the upgrade?
A. content, full-text index, and database
B. content, full-text index, and BOCS cache
C. full-text index, database, and BOCS cache
D. content, database, and BOCS cache
Answer: A

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NO.4 A client wants to upgrade their Documentum system from 5.3 SP3 to D6, but does not have the
resources to upgrade and test web applications such as Webtop and Content Server components within a
single downtime window. The client asks whether the upgrade can be phased, and if so which
components should be upgraded first.
What is the correct response to the customer's question?
A. Web applications must be upgraded before the Content Server.
B. Web applications must be upgraded after the Content Server is upgraded.
C. Web applications may be upgraded before or after the Content Server is upgraded.
D. Web applications do not need to be upgraded to make use of D6 features.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the recommended method for migrating Web Content Management (WCM) Page Builder
templates, blueprints, managed links, and associated content from a production environment to a testing
environment?
A. archive and install a DocApp
B. perform a repository-to-repository copy operation through WebPublisher
C. execute cabinet dump and load
D. use a deep export/import through WebPublisher
Answer: A

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NO.6 A client has a Content Server, Site Caching Services (SCS), Content Transformation Services (CTS),
and Full-text Indexes installed on Windows/Oracle servers. The client wants to migrate Documentum
applications to Linux.
Which statement is true?
A. The client must migrate Oracle servers to Linux.
B. SCS is not supported on Linux.
C. CTS is not supported on Linux.
D. Content Server is not supported on Linux/Oracle.
Answer: C

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NO.7 After an upgrade from a pre 5.3 version to 5.3 or 6, what can you do to remove the Verity Full-text Index
components?
A. You delete the Verity Full-text Index components via Documentum Administrator after the upgrade.
B. The Content Server upgrade procedure deletes the Full-text. Just the empty/fulltext/Verity directory
needs to be deleted in the DOCUMENTUM directory.
C. You do not delete the Verity Full-text Index. The new Fast Full-text installation needs the data for
migration.
D. You delete the Documentum type dmi_tdk_index and the Full-text data in DOCUMENTUM/data
directory.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which is a supported path for upgrading a Content Server to D6?
A. 4i > 5.2.5 > 6
B. 5.2 > 5.2.5 > 6
C. 4i > 5.3 > 6
D. 5.2.5 > 5.3 > 6
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is the proper sequence of steps for upgrading Content Server and Document Transformation
Services (DTS)?
A. uninstall Content Server
uninstall DTS
install Content Server
install DTS
add DTS Support to repository
B. remove DTS Support from repository
uninstall DTS upgrade Content Server
install DTS
add DTS Support to repository
C. upgrade Content Server
remove DTS Support from repository
uninstall DTS
install DTS
add DTS support to repository
D. remove DTS Support from repository
upgrade Content Server
uninstall DTS
install DTS
add DTS support to repository
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which file replaces the pre-D6 dmcl.ini?
A. dfc.properties
B. docbroker.ini
C. java.ini
D. dbor.properties
Answer: A

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NO.11 A client is migrating their repositories from Windows to Linux. The database server is Oracle. The
content file stores are on NAS and made available over CIFS. For the migration, the client has done the
following:
installed Content Server and Oracle client on Linux using an installation owner account with the same
name on Windows
copied the tnsnames.ora from Windows to Linux
configured replacement Connection Brokers
added Services entries for the repositories on the Linux Content Server environment
attached to the NAS storage using NFS
updated for each repository the web_server_loc, smtp_server, r_host_name, r_install_domain, and
projection target attributes for server config using SQL to reflect the new server name
Which minimal high-level steps does the client need to take to complete the migration?
A. copy all the configuration, and the aek.key files under %DOCUMENTUM%\dba Windows
to$DOCUMENTUM/dba on the Linux Content Server
update the user_auth_target, database_password_file, and Docbase Projection Target fields in each
server.ini
update the appropriate dm_location objects in the repositories using SQL to map to the new
locations</UL
B. copy all the configuration files under %DOCUMENTUM%\dba Windows to $DOCUMENTUM/dba on
the Linux Content Server
update the user_auth_target, database_password_file, and Docbase Projection Target fields in each
server.ini
update the appropriate dm_location objects in the repositories using SQL to map to the new locations
C. copy all the configuration, and the aek.key files under %DOCUMENTUM%\dba Windows to
$DOCUMENTUM/dba on the Linux Content Server
update the Docbase Projection Target fields in each server.ini
update the appropriate dm_location objects in the repositories using SQL to map to the new locations
D. copy all the configuration files under %DOCUMENTUM%\dba Windows to $DOCUMENTUM/dba on
the Linux Content Server
pdate the database_password_file, and Docbase Projection Target fields in each server.ini
update the appropriate dm_location objects in the repositories using SQL to map to the new locations
Answer: A

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NO.12 You are tasked with performing a Content Server upgrade.
To accomplish this, you do the following:
You first make a repository copy of the production repository by installing the Content Server.
You then create a new repository.
You then copy the database and file storage areas from production to the new environment.
To be successful, what must be true of the new repository copy after this operation is complete?
A. It must have the same Docbase ID as the production repository.
B. It must have a different owner than the production repository.
C. It must project to the same Connection Broker as the production repository.
D. It must have the same Database Connection string as the production repository.
Answer: A

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NO.13 In addition to core software upgrade considerations, which component of a Documentum system are
most likely to require additional work?
A. software use cases
B. network topology
C. data center architecture
D. application customizations
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which Application Server does D6 Content Server install for its internal use?
A. BEA Weblogic
B. Oracle AS
C. Apache Tomcat
D. IBM WebSphere
Answer: A

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NO.15 A client wants to upgrade a repository from 5.2.5 to 5.3. The repository has 8 million content objects
with an average size of 50K. The full text searching capability is required to be available within 24 hours of
the repository upgrade. The Full-text Index Server is installed on a separate server. The upgrade is
scheduled to happen in two months.
How can the client accomplish this objective?
A. configure an Index Agent in normal mode to operate against the 5.2.5 repository
create the Full-text Indexes
run the ftintegrity tool to identify documents that were not indexed, and resubmit those documents for
indexing
upgrade the Content Server and the repository
B. upgrade the Content Server and the repository
configure an Index Agent in normal mode to operate against the upgraded repository
create the Full-text Indexes
C. configure a 5.3 Index Agent in migration mode to operate against the 5.2.5 repository
create the Full-text Indexes.
run the ftintegrity tool to identify documents that were not indexed, and resubmit those documents for
indexing
upgrade the Content Server and the repository
shut down the migration-mode Index Agent and change it to a normal-mode Index Agent.
D. upgrade the Content Server and the repository
configure an Index Agent in migration mode to operate against the upgraded repository
create the Full-text Indexes.
shut down the migration-mode Index Agent and change it to a normal-mode Index Agent
Answer: C

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NO.16 Before upgrading the Content Server software, which job do you need to run to find sysobjects that
point to non-existent content?
A. Content Warning
B. Consistency Checker
C. Dmclean
D. State of the Repository Report
Answer: B

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NO.17 What is the supported procedure for rolling back an upgrade of Documentum Content Server?
A. uninstall the current version, then reinstall the previous version
B. run the uninstaller for the current version and run the Data Dictionary Publish job
C. remove the directory under %DOCUMENTUM%/product for the current version, change server.ini file
and dm_server_config, dm_docbase_config objects
D. restore the system from backup
Answer: D

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NO.18 What is required for using Business Object Framework 2 (BOF 2)?
A. a dfc.properties file on all client machines such as application servers
B. a DBOR.properties and a dfc.properties file on all client machines such as application servers and a
global registry repository
C. a DBOR.properties file on all client machines and a global registry repository
D. a global registry repository and a dfc.properties file on all client machines
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which statement is true about the dump and load operation?
A. Aspects associated with a dumped object are not included in the dump file.
B. Content stored in external file storage may be included in a dump file, but blob or turbo storage may
not.
C. The source and target repositories must be the same version, but may use different code pages.
D. Objects in the target repository will always have the same r_object_id as the corresponding object in
the source repository.
Answer: A

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NO.20 What is the correct sequence of steps for upgrading Content Server and Full-text Index Server?
A. uninstall Full-text Index Server delete Index Agents upgrade Content Server install Index Agents install
Full-text Index Server
B. upgrade Content Server uninstall Full-text Index Server delete Index Agents install Index Agents install
Full-text Index Server
C. delete Index Agents uninstall Full-text Index Server upgrade Content Server install Full-text Index
Server install Index Agents
D. delete Index Agents upgrade Full-text Index Server upgrade Content Server install Index Agents
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: E20-538
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Network Attached Storage (NAS) Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators)
Questions et réponses: 115 Q&As

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NO.1 Which command would successfully extend a Data Mover root file system?
A. as root issue /nas/sbin/rootnas_fs -xtend root_fs_2 size=2G pool=clar_r5_performance
B. as nasadmin issue nas_fs -xtend root_fs_2 size=2G pool=clar_r5_performance
C. as root issue /nas/sbin/rootnas_fs -xtend root_fs_2 size=2K pool=clar_r5_performance
D. as nasadmin issue nas_fs -xtend root_fs_2 size=2G pool=clar_r5_performance
Answer: A

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NO.2 You are running out of capacity on your Celerra, and additional storage is already on order. Meanwhile,
which quota configuration would track user consumption?
A. User quotas on the file system
B. Group quotas on the tree
C. Tree quotas on the file system
D. User quotas on the tree
Answer: A

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NO.3 An administrator configured Data Mover network devices to transmit frames on all links for redundancy.
Which network configuration was used to accomplish this.?
A. LACP
B. Proxy ARP
C. Ethernet channel
D. RARP
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which statement describes the public network connection of a Celerra with a single Control Station?
A. Comprised of a single physical Ethernet connection
B. Is formed from dual redundant physical Ethernet connections
C. Comprised of a virtual Ethernet EtherChannel connection
D. Is formed from a virtual Ethernet LACP connection
Answer: A

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NO.5 You enter the following command: nas_fs -create size=3M pool=clar_r5_economy
What will be the result?
A. The file system is created with a default file system name.
B. The file system and a mountpoint are created.
C. Only the mountpoint is created.
D. The file system is not created.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Management asks you to set quota limits on a directory tree.
They want the default set to 500 MB with a possible overhead of 20%. They want to enforce these limits
on the sum of the logical size of objects in that quota tree. What is part of the correct answer?
A. Set the hard limit to 600 MB, and set the file size quota policy on the Data Mover.
B. Set the hard limit to 600 MB, and set the file size quota policy on the file system.
C. Set the hard limit to 500 MB, and set the file size quota policy on the file system.
D. Set the hard limit to 500 MB, and set the blocksize quota policy.
Answer: A

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NO.7 A network administrator needs to create a trunk on a Data Mover from dissimilar physical network
devices.
What networking configuration should be used to accomplish this?
A. LACP
B. Fail Safe Network
C. EtherChannel
D. SNMP
Answer: C

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NO.8 When a Celerra quota is turned off, how does that affect the existing user and group quota information?
A. User and group quota statistics are deleted.
B. Group statistics are retained and user statistics are not.
C. User and group statistics are retained.
D. User statistics are retained and group statistics are not.
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is a minimum requirement when creating a file system using Manual Volume Management?
A. Metavolume
B. Mirror volume
C. Sliced volumes
D. Striped volumes
Answer: A

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NO.10 You are creating an auto-extend file system. What would happen if you leave the Maximum Capacity
option empty?
A. File system would grow to the pool capacity limit.
B. Data would be overwritten.
C. File system would fail to auto-extend.
D. Write I/Os would be saved in cache until more space is added.
Answer: A

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NO.11 A system administrator is trying to create a non-root file system of type UxFS, on a metavolume. What is
the minimum size to create the file system?
A. 4 GB
B. 1 MB
C. 2 GB
D. 2 MB
Answer: D

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NO.12 A site administrator would like to have file system quota implemented. However, the administrator is
worried about users who create symbolic links.
How can symbolic links be excluded from the file system quota?
A. Use group and user quotas together
B. Use the filesize policy
C. Use the block policy
D. Use the excl option when configuring the quota
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which conditions must be met before tree quotas can be enabled?
A. File system and parent directories must exist, but the parent directory on which the tree quota is to be
applied must already exist.
B. File system and parent directories must exist, but the parent directory on which the tree quota is to be
applied must not exist.
C. Tree directory structure to be quoted must be populated with data.
D. Tree directory structure to be quoted must be at the root of the file system.
Answer: B

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NO.14 You are asked by management to create a project directory and track the individual user consumption
in this directory using Celerra quota features. No limits should be enforced.
What would be part of an appropriate procedure to satisfy this requirement?
A. Set up a user quota on the share; specify the limits with the keyword "none" in the CLI
B. Set up a tree quota on the new directory; set up a user quota on the quota tree; specify the limits for the
tree quota and user quota with a value of zero in the GUI
C. Set up a tree quota on the new directory; leave the two fields specifying the limits for the quota tree and
the user quota blank in the Unisphere GUI
D. Set up a user quota on the file system (accommodating the new directory); specify the limits with the
keyword "none" in the GUI
Answer: C

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NO.15 A site administrator needs to disable user and group quotas. What happens to the existing quota
configuration and metadata?
A. Maintained
B. Enforced
C. Deleted
D. Reset
Answer: A

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